ok in the past few mins i've made a little progress, but just still need to piece it together:
analysing those two integrals it is apparent that:
for lnx: xlnx-(x-1)
for ln(x-1): (x-1)ln(x-1) - (x-2)
so (x+1)ln(x+1) + x must be the area under the ln curve ln(x+1)....which is obviously more than the area under the ln x curve cos it's just shifted across.
now ln(n!) is approx. the integral of ln x from 1 to N....so area under lnx graph. But that is +1 more than nlnn-n...hence the show that should be finished
but is it accurate to say ln(n!) = nln N - n + 1 (cos for small N that's not that accurate)