Grammar question, pronoun usage, Shakespeare

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Llemaire
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In Benvolios monologue he says "Romeo he cried aloud"
Is this use of a pronoun after a noun a form or poetic license or is this allowed by grammar rules?
Can this be used in everyday speech?
For instance, can I say "James he went to the store"

Thanks for your help!
-L
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Immortal-Reaper
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I think it might be more formatting (IDK I don't do Romeo and Juliet :confused:) with the modern version being along the lines of: 'Romeo cried aloud'
So I think it may simply be Shakespearean English to make it fit the iambic pentameter rather than anything else

Hope it helps
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