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Magnetism question
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Rhys_M
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#1
If you put a ball bearing in the centre of 2 bar magnets in this arrangement:
N S Ball N S
Will the ball be equally attracted to both magnets and have a net force of 0, or will it become the opposite polarity to which ever magnet interacts with it first and so will be attracted to one side?
Thank you
N S Ball N S
Will the ball be equally attracted to both magnets and have a net force of 0, or will it become the opposite polarity to which ever magnet interacts with it first and so will be attracted to one side?
Thank you
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Lio_R6
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#2
I'm only an A-Level student in physics, but I believe the ball will become polarised, and be held within the two magnets, the net force being, as you said, 0
provided the magnets have the same strength, and are strong enough to overcome the force of gravity
and the ball is placed perfectly between the magnets (in the exact centre)
provided the magnets have the same strength, and are strong enough to overcome the force of gravity
and the ball is placed perfectly between the magnets (in the exact centre)
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Lio_R6
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#3
A more in-depth explanation can be given, but it's not needed for this problem.
Hope that helps
Hope that helps
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Rhys_M
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#4
(Original post by Lio_R6)
I'm only an A-Level student in physics, but I believe the ball will become polarised, and be held within the two magnets, the net force being, as you said, 0
provided the magnets have the same strength, and are strong enough to overcome the force of gravity
and the ball is placed perfectly between the magnets (in the exact centre)
I'm only an A-Level student in physics, but I believe the ball will become polarised, and be held within the two magnets, the net force being, as you said, 0
provided the magnets have the same strength, and are strong enough to overcome the force of gravity
and the ball is placed perfectly between the magnets (in the exact centre)
Thanks for your reply!
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