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    Hi, I missed a few lectures and I totally don't understand this.

    Why does (1 + (1/n) )^n tend to e, as n tends to infinity?

    I've got some similar questions to work through but I don't understand the concept at all, I just think they should all tend to 1...
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    http://pirate.shu.edu/projects/reals/numseq/s_expx.html

    edit: If you want to know why Euler's sequence converges to e, Google is your friend.
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    (Original post by D-Day)
    http://pirate.shu.edu/projects/reals/numseq/s_expx.html

    edit: If you want to know why Euler's sequence converges to e, Google is your friend.
    Thankyou so would

    (1 + (1/2n))^n tend to e^2?
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    (Original post by jobo3)
    Thankyou so would

    (1 + (1/2n))^n tend to e^2?
    Almost.

    \displaystyle\lim_{n\to \infty}(1+\frac{c}{n})^n=e^c

    In your example, c=1/2
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    The most useful thing I lernt from this (when I learnt it) was that ln(1 + (1/n)) tends to (1/n) as n tends to infinity - which is a nice tool sometimes.
 
 
 
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