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    (Original post by NDGAARONDI)
    All the fuss over Sharia law being used in Britain and the Jews have had their courts being used for over a decade. Hardly anyone mentions that.
    Jews account for an extremely small percentage of the population, they are no threat because they don't breed at an astronomical rate. I don't envisage a day when Jews will become a majority.
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    (Original post by Ratsr)
    That's the dumbest thing I've heard in a long time.
    Er, what?

    "Sharia (Arabic: شريعة transliteration: Šarīʿah) is the body of Islamic religious law. The term means "way" or "path to the water source"; it is the legal framework within which the public and private aspects of life are regulated for those living in a legal system based on Islamic principles of jurisprudence and for Muslims living outside the domain. Sharia deals with many aspects of day-to-day life, including politics, economics, banking, business, contracts, family, sexuality, hygiene, and social issues.

    There is no strictly static set of laws of sharia. Sharia is more of a system of law, a consensus of the unified spirit, based on the Qur'an (the religious text of Islam), hadith (sayings and doings of Muhammad and his companions), Ijma (consensus), Qiyas (reasoning by analogy) and centuries of debate, interpretation and precedent."
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    Definitely not.
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    Ignorant ********s. Read my posts -_-
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    I think it would be good banter.
    Why not eh?
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    (Original post by Ratsr)
    Ohh I never knew that. I thought it was a bit random that you said "ask a Jew".

    Can you elaborate over "having their courts used for over a decade" so I can be sure I'm understanding what you're saing right, thnx.
    Orthodox Jews have been using their own form of arbitration for some time now.

    http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/uk/7233040.stm
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    (Original post by PeanutButterJellyTime)
    No. Simple As. Why should one religion be treated differently, compared to others. Only because the particular religion becomes outraged by the simplest things, and uses fear to suppress anyone acting against them.
    Some people don't understand the debate.

    The question is can, subject to the two parties of a civil case (business agreements, marriage issues) agreeing, they follow any judisprudence.

    Your comment is equivilent to saying why do people with prenuptial agreements get treated differently.

    It's not about criminal justice, outrage, keeping muslims happy etc.

    -- So I say, yes... if two people prefer to have a certain judge, then why not?
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    No.
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    (Original post by Ratsr)
    It can serve people of any faith, not just muslims. I never denied it being "islamic law". Get it right.
    No, it CAN'T. Sharia law is now incorporated into British civil law, correct? Well if a married Christian couple wish to divorce, they will NOT be permitted to use Sharia law in order to get that divorce because they ARE NOT MUSLIM. Are you stupid?
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    (Original post by tristanperry)
    If Muslims don't like our law (civil or otherwise), they don't have to be here.

    Just as if I (as a Christian) didn't like the law (civil or otherwise) in a Muslim country, I wouldn't have to stay there.
    Totally. Extremely well put.
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    (Original post by Elipsis)
    Jews account for an extremely small percentage of the population, they are no threat because they don't breed at an astronomical rate. I don't envisage a day when Jews will become a majority.
    Not by numbers alone no. They can be very powerful, such as for lobbying the Senate in the USA. I don't see how Muslims will be a majority either though.
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    (Original post by Ratsr)
    It can serve people of any faith, not just muslims. I never denied it being "islamic law". Get it right.
    Just it hates everyone who's not muslim. Riiiiiight, gotcha. :yep:
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    Wtf.
    Of course not.
    [Coming from a Muslim]
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    this question was never demanded of muslims. we never dreamt of other non-muslims ever to even talk bout having sharia law in a country where muslims are the minority. Its insane! the media (daily mail) asked this question. to cause a stir why because its absurd to have it in the uk
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    (Original post by Ratsr)
    OK. mr 1337 7053r. UK law is based upon the bible, just like most of European law, which both stem from Judaism.
    Wow. I'm a changed person.

    I meant actual evidence to support your argument - as opposed to very basic facts and insults.

    (Original post by C_c)
    Totally. Extremely well put.
    Thanks
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    (Original post by Antonia87)
    No, it CAN'T. Sharia law is now incorporated into British civil law, correct? Well if a married Christian couple wish to divorce, they will NOT be permitted to use Sharia law in order to get that divorce because they ARE NOT MUSLIM. Are you stupid?
    ur rong sory lol

    People can create any contract they like based off whatever they believe to sign for the purpoes of Arbitration.

    Nobody is suggesting that Shariah law be implemented alongside British law in the Civil or Criminal Courts, but simply that people should be able to use Shariah law in the system of Arbitration.
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    Correct me if I am wrong but wouldn't Sharia law in civil cases be incompatible with our equality laws? i.e in Islamic divorces women and men are treated differently under Sharia law...
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    (Original post by Amy***)
    Correct me if I am wrong but wouldn't Sharia law in civil cases be incompatible with our equality laws? i.e in Islamic divorces women and men are treated differently under Sharia law...
    Nobody has suggested Sharia law in civil cases. Or criminal cases. This is a typical kneejerk reaction of the British public to the word 'Sharia.'
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    when law foe everyone. equality. neither law system would work if not everyone abided by it
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    Absolutely not. This is Britain, and so any residents (british or otherwise) should accept that they are expected to abide by British law.
 
 
 
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