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BCHL85
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#1
Prove that
lim(n->infinity)of [(n!)^1/n]/n is 1/e
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RichE
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#2
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Compare the area under y=lnx from 1 to n with unit-wide rectangular blocks that sit just below or just above the graph. That gives you the required inequalities.
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BCHL85
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Hmm, not sure ... you mean both sides are not equal?
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Gauss
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(Original post by BCHL85)
Prove that
lim(n->infinity)of [(n!)^1/n]/n is 1/e
Look here.

Galois.
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BCHL85
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Oh, well. Sorry I have the same question :p: I did read it then forgot.
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RichE
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Try question 5 from

http://www.maths.ox.ac.uk/prospectiv...lus2/index.htm

for some guidance with this problem.
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