Should he have fouled that player in order to get a yellow card? It meant that he could then serve out his ban whilst he was injured and miss a 'less important' match against azerbaijan?
If so, should he have told the press he did it on purpose?
exactly what i was thinking personally. having said that he's brought up the issue of something that has been occuring for years. so maybe it was intentional. who knows?
poor sportsmanship in my opinion and its probably just to divert attention to that rather than his failing marriage...like anyone gives a ****e
lol i do get the point about bad sportsmanship though. he could've injured that guy he fouled, and all so he could avoid annoying suspension. I know he's said he didn't ever intend to injure the guy (whoever it was), but he could've; there's always a risk.
lol i do get the point about bad sportsmanship though. he could've injured that guy he fouled, and all so he could avoid annoying suspension. I know he's said he didn't ever intend to injure the guy (whoever it was), but he could've; there's always a risk.
I don't see how anyone could have got injured from the challenge.