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# is i possible 2 have 1 divided by infinity? watch

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1. nebody no??
2. (Original post by Unregistered)
nebody no??
yes. it is 0
3. (Original post by elpaw)
yes. it is 0
Ahh yes just worked that out at first I was like what? and then I read the question the right way round
4. Not technically true.

For all standard purposes 0/inf. can be called one, but in actual fact this produces an infintesimally small number, as does any finite number/inf.
5. (Original post by Bigcnee)
Not technically true.

For all standard purposes 0/inf. can be called one, but in actual fact this produces an infintesimally small number, as does any finite number/inf.
True.

-------> 0

(Tends to)
6. You cannot perform any arithmetical operation with infinity since infinity is not a number.
7. Why can't I define a certain constant that is equal to 1/0 ? The same way the square root of -1 was undefined until someone came along and defined it to be i?....
8. (Original post by elpaw)
Why can't I define a certain constant that is equal to 1/0 ? The same way the square root of -1 was undefined until someone came along and defined it to be i?....
.

Let 1/0 = k.

Then 1 = 0.k then 2 = 2.0.k = (2.0).k = 0.k = 1.
9. (Original post by theone)
.

Let 1/0 = k.

Then 1 = 0.k then 2 = 2.0.k = (2.0).k = 0.k = 1.
good point..... *off to cancel my membership of mathematicians anonymous*
10. 0.000000(infinite number of 0's)000001
11. Im not even going to pretend I know what the answer is, but from what my maths lecturer says 1/infinity is undefined, though I am only 4 weeks into my uni maths course so the real answer might be a bit hard for ickle first years like me to grasp. anyway you might find this discussion helpful, and there is a lot more info floating around the net.
12. 1/infinity is undefined as it is nonexistant as infinity is not a number.

What we mean is the limit of 1/n as n tends to infinity, which can be shown to be 0.

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Updated: October 28, 2003
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