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    nebody no??
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    (Original post by Unregistered)
    nebody no??
    yes. it is 0
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    (Original post by elpaw)
    yes. it is 0
    Ahh yes just worked that out at first I was like what? and then I read the question the right way round
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    Not technically true.

    For all standard purposes 0/inf. can be called one, but in actual fact this produces an infintesimally small number, as does any finite number/inf.
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    (Original post by Bigcnee)
    Not technically true.

    For all standard purposes 0/inf. can be called one, but in actual fact this produces an infintesimally small number, as does any finite number/inf.
    True.

    We'll rephrase the answer then:


    -------> 0

    (Tends to)
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    You cannot perform any arithmetical operation with infinity since infinity is not a number.
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    Why can't I define a certain constant that is equal to 1/0 ? The same way the square root of -1 was undefined until someone came along and defined it to be i?....
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    (Original post by elpaw)
    Why can't I define a certain constant that is equal to 1/0 ? The same way the square root of -1 was undefined until someone came along and defined it to be i?....
    .

    Let 1/0 = k.

    Then 1 = 0.k then 2 = 2.0.k = (2.0).k = 0.k = 1.
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    (Original post by theone)
    .

    Let 1/0 = k.

    Then 1 = 0.k then 2 = 2.0.k = (2.0).k = 0.k = 1.
    good point..... *off to cancel my membership of mathematicians anonymous*
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    0.000000(infinite number of 0's)000001
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    Im not even going to pretend I know what the answer is, but from what my maths lecturer says 1/infinity is undefined, though I am only 4 weeks into my uni maths course so the real answer might be a bit hard for ickle first years like me to grasp. anyway you might find this discussion helpful, and there is a lot more info floating around the net.
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    1/infinity is undefined as it is nonexistant as infinity is not a number.

    What we mean is the limit of 1/n as n tends to infinity, which can be shown to be 0.
 
 
 

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