Strain to micro strain conversion
I am trying to understand the conversion to microstrain. Once again, this course isn't very helpful.
See below:
So, I know the first part stress is 1697.79kPa, although it doesn't specify the unit required.
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
See below:
So, I know the first part stress is 1697.79kPa, although it doesn't specify the unit required.
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
(edited 6 months ago)
Original post by KingRich
I am trying to understand the conversion to microstrain. Once again, this course isn't very helpful.
See below:
So, I know the first part stress is 1697.79kPa, although it doesn't specify the unit required.
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
See below:
So, I know the first part stress is 1697.79kPa, although it doesn't specify the unit required.
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
1.5 * 10^(-4) = 150 * 10^(-6)
so ...
Whether you convert (both) to m or mm at the start is fairly irrelevant, make sure that both give the same (dimensionless) value.
Original post by mqb2766
1.5 * 10^(-4) = 150 * 10^(-6)
so ...
Whether you convert (both) to m or mm at the start is fairly irrelevant, make sure that both give the same (dimensionless) value.
so ...
Whether you convert (both) to m or mm at the start is fairly irrelevant, make sure that both give the same (dimensionless) value.
Just to clarify, do you multiply 1.5 x 10^-4 x 10^-6? because I get 1.5 x 10^-10 or by 10⁶....as that finds 150. Im missing the connection?
Original post by KingRich
Just to clarify, do you multiply 1.5 x 10^-4 x 10^-6? because I get 1.5 x 10^-10 or by 10⁶....as that finds 150. Im missing the connection?
1.5 * 10^(-4) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-2) * 10^(-4) = 150 * 10^(-6)
theyre the same number. Going right to left, 150.0 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^(-4).
(edited 6 months ago)
Reply 4
Original post by KingRich
I am trying to understand the conversion to microstrain. Once again, this course isn't very helpful.
See below:So, I know the first part stress is 1697.79kPa, although it doesn't specify the unit required.
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
See below:
Part b, I find 1.5 x 10^-4...
I read that one microstrain = 1 x 10^-6... so, as it stands, the answer is not quite a microstrain.
Refer to the photo above. As usual, the course has made an error in their calculation. Firstly, they haven't converted the difference in the stretch to metres, so according to their error, it should be 0.15mm/m lol
Anyway.
Hello King Rich!
I agree with you.
Here is my coincise proposal.
The cross-sectional area (A) is A = pi × (d/2)^2, where "d" is the diameter of the cable.
After calculation, the cross-sectional area (A) is 7.07 × 10^-4 m^2.
The stress (σ) is the ratio of the applied force of 1200 N to the cross-sectional area, which is calculated to be 1.70 × 10^6 Pa.
The strain (ε) is (DeltaL)/ initial length (L) = 0.003 m / 20 m = 1.5 × 10^-4.
Results
1.
Stress (σ) = 1.70 × 10^6 Pa
2.
Strain (ε) = 1.5 × 10^-4
(edited 6 months ago)
Original post by mqb2766
1.5 * 10^(-4) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-2) * 10^(-4) = 150 * 10^(-6)
theyre the same number. Going right to left, 150.0 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^(-4).
theyre the same number. Going right to left, 150.0 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^(-4).
This witchery is confusing the hell out of me lol.
Is there no simple conversion rule? Lol
I think that guy below me has just used A.I or something lol
Original post by mqb2766
1.5 * 10^(-4) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-2) * 10^(-4) = 150 * 10^(-6)
theyre the same number. Going right to left, 150.0 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^(-4).
theyre the same number. Going right to left, 150.0 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^2 * 10^(-6) = 1.5 * 10^(-4).
I think I have now made sense of it. Taking the strain ε=1.5x10^-4, to convert to micro strain, divide by 10^-6, =1.5 x 10² =150με. Likewise, the opposite if it asked to convert to strain…
Original post by KingRich
I think I have now made sense of it. Taking the strain ε=1.5x10^-4, to convert to micro strain, divide by 10^-6, =1.5 x 10² =150με. Likewise, the opposite if it asked to convert to strain…
No,
0.00015 = 1.5 * 10^(-4) = 15 * 10^(-5) = 150 * 10^(-6) = 1500 * 10^(-7) = ...
The
Z micro strain
means its
Z * 10^(-6)
so if you startt with 1.5 * 10^(-4), mulltiply the 1.5 by 100 and divide the 10^(-4) by 100 so 150 * 10^(-6)
Reply 8
Original post by KingRich
This witchery is confusing the hell out of me lol.
Is there no simple conversion rule? Lol
I think that guy below me has just used A.I or something lol
Is there no simple conversion rule? Lol
I think that guy below me has just used A.I or something lol
Hello KingRich!
Quote
I think that guy below me has just used A.I or something lol
Unquote
If you mean that the "guy below me" is me, you are wrong, because I never use artificial intelligence or anything like that.
If you didn't mean me, I apologise.
I give you the check of my reply #3 according to this authoritative AI detector.
Take a look below at Human-written = 100%.
Have a nice evening!😀
Bye,
(edited 6 months ago)
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