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Maths discrete probability question

Hi,please could I have help on this question? I’m really confused on firstly, if p(x=r+1) 2/3(x=r), and to find x=1 we would have to use 0 which has a probability of 0, wouldn’t they all be 0?
Also, in the ms, why have they included p=6, wouldn’t that have a probability of 0?
Finally, what is the geometric progression for? Can’t we just use the sum is 1 to work out k?
Thank you.

Reply 1

Original post
by anonymous56754
Hi,please could I have help on this question? I’m really confused on firstly, if p(x=r+1) 2/3(x=r), and to find x=1 we would have to use 0 which has a probability of 0, wouldn’t they all be 0?
Also, in the ms, why have they included p=6, wouldn’t that have a probability of 0?
Finally, what is the geometric progression for? Can’t we just use the sum is 1 to work out k?
Thank you.

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Reply 2

Original post
by anonymous56754
IMG_1332.jpegIMG_1333.jpeg

It looks like its a typo, so p(1) is non-zero but p(0)=p(-1)=p(-2)=....=0.

The ellipse ... in the question at the end of 1,2,3,4,5,... means all subsequent values.

It is a geomeric progression/series so the sum to infinity is valid.
(edited 10 months ago)

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