Quesion regarding EMF variation in transformers

tigrispanthera

Why is the answer B? Why does the EMF generated start as negative is it because of Faraday's law?

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Eimmanuel

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by tigrispanthera

Why is the answer B? Why does the EMF generated start as negative is it because of Faraday's law?

First of all, you need to know that magnetic flux $\phi$ in coil 2 is proportional to the input current in coil 1. By Faraday’s law and Lenz’s law, the induced emf in coil 2 is the negative rate of change of magnetic flux linkage or
$emf = ‒ \dfrac{\Delta N \phi}{\Delta t}$

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