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# Maths question watch

1. i was wondering how something to the power of zero is one, ive never understood why but just know that it is.
e.g 34 to the power of zero = 1
2. (Original post by johnface)
i was wondering how something to the power of zero is one, ive never understood why but just know that it is.
e.g 34 to the power of zero = 1
I think the following pattern might help

3. Hmm, I'm not actually sure... I've always thought "it just is"!
I suppose if I have a number, and I times it by itself 0 times... you get 1? Maybe it's the same as dividing it by itself?
Hmm.......
4. This looks quite helpful:
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq...to.0power.html
5. I've always thought of this in terms of division:

Obviously x/x = 1

Division in terms of the difference in the indicies: 1 - 1 = 0 and so x0 = 1
6. (Original post by johnface)
i was wondering how something to the power of zero is one, ive never understood why but just know that it is.
e.g 34 to the power of zero = 1
7. (Original post by rupertj)
that's the worst jibberish ive ever seen
8. (Original post by johnface)
that's the worst jibberish ive ever seen
How, exactly?

, of course, because it's something divided by itself. But as well, since it's equal to .
9. (Original post by johnface)
that's the worst jibberish ive ever seen
Seriously? Anything over itself is always 1, so x^0 is 1. Makes perfect sense?
10. (Original post by johnface)
that's the worst jibberish ive ever seen
I'm afraid he's right...
11. (Original post by Tyrrell9)
Seriously? Anything over itself is always 1, so x^0 is 1. Makes perfect sense?
Thank you.
12. (Original post by Tyrrell9)
Seriously? Anything over itself is always 1, so x^0 is 1. Makes perfect sense?
Not true.

Nought divided by nought does not equal one.
13. (Original post by steve2005)
Not true.

Nought divided by nought does not equal one.
Nought isn't 'anything', it's nothing.

Does that work?
14. If you only work with integer powers than it's probably best just to accept this as a definition, so that rules like a^(x+y)=(a^x)(a^y) work. Otherwise it's a consequence of the definition of the exponential function.
15. (Original post by Sh4w)
Nought isn't 'anything', it's nothing.

Does that work?
But nothing still goes into nothing infinitely many times, thus being undefined.
16. If you think about the theory of subtracting powers when dividing, then it's fairly self explanatory.
17. Sorry to hijack this thread, but what I really don't understand is why is an indeterminate form, it just goes totally against the definition of . Can anyone explain this to me?
18. (Original post by Emc2)
Sorry to hijack this thread, but what I really don't understand is why is an indeterminate form, it just goes totally against the definition of . Can anyone explain this to me?
It's not. It's 1.
19. (Original post by generalebriety)
It's not. It's 1.
Wikipedia begs to differ. And so does my high school calculus textbook.

EDIT: sorry if that came across as arrogant, it's just frustration for not being able to get my head around it really
20. (Original post by Emc2)
Wikipedia begs to differ. And so does my high school calculus textbook.
I don't see the expression you posted on that Wikipedia page anywhere. Can you type out precisely what your textbook says and/or point me to the line you're talking about on that page?

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