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    I dont quite get the point of having two forms of the same gene? And during transcription, what decides whether DNA from one allele is used over the other allele?

    Am i not quite understanding something here...?
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    what?

    do you not get that gametes are haploid, and during fertilization it becomes diploid?! the alleles are done randomly i think..

    haploid + haploid = diploid...
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    Genetic diversity.
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    (Original post by BrinnyUnlimited)
    Genetic diversity.
    Ok, there's the reason. And what determines whether allele 1 is transcribed or allele 2 is transcribed?
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    (Original post by LearningMath)
    Ok, there's the reason. And what determines whether allele 1 is transcribed or allele 2 is transcribed?
    Umm, I think it's just totally randomised. Chromosomes line up on the cell's equator during cell division and the chromatids are pulled apart by spindle fibres. As to which allele goes where is left up to chance from what I can recall.
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    Awesome, found an answer. Apparently both alleles for a particular gene are used for transcription, sometimes this is necessary to get enough volume of said protein, and sometimes it's a fall back mechanism if one gene is badly mutated.

    No one seemed to understand the question or know the answer, but if you're interested: http://www.thetech.org/genetics/ask.php?id=227

    Cheers anyway
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    (Original post by BrinnyUnlimited)
    Umm, I think it's just totally randomised. Chromosomes line up on the cell's equator during cell division and the chromatids are pulled apart by spindle fibres. As to which allele goes where is left up to chance from what I can recall.
    No no no, i mean in a diploid cell, you have 2 forms of the same gene, i was wondering what determines which is transcribed(for protein synthesis).

    See above! :p:
 
 
 
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