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    A singer cannot perform the remaining three of five shows due to what she claims is a nasty and rare throat condition. The concert hall manager on the other hand, claims he saw her partying after the previous two nights' shows.

    Would you discuss self-inducement here? But doesn't self-inducement have to be deliberate? If she partied, did she intend it to affect her vocal cords, etc.? Would this result in supervening incapacity if no probable fault can be found on the singer's part?

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    No, it does not have to be deliberate. If you party like an animal and then have a hangover, the hangover is self-induced.
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    Frustration can be self-induced if it results from deliberate or negligent conduct by the party claiming frustration. (Chen-Wishart, Contract Law 2005, at 7.5)

    It would depend on whether the partying added up to negligent conduct. If the throat condition is rare, and not usually caused by partying, it's unlikely to have been a reasonably foreseeable consequence of the singer's actions.
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    thank you both for clearing that up
 
 
 

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