In simple terms:
If left to the
free market...
• Merit goods (i.e. goods/services which produce a welfare
gain) produce
positive externalities, whereby the good/service is
under-produced/consumed. This is due to the
low consumer demand (which the free market mechanism uses to determine a price).
Demand for
merit goods is low as a result of
social benefit exceeding private benefit. Consumers aren't going to demand more of a good/service if the
private benefit (i.e. the personal benefit of consuming the good/service) is low. This
low demand is met with
low supply (otherwise known as the
free market equilibrium/
private optimum), and therefore results in a
lower price.
To eliminate
positive externalities, the government will intervene in the market with the aim of either increasing demand or supply to reach the
social optimum.
• The opposite is true for
demerit goods (i.e. goods/services which produce a welfare
loss); these produce
negative externalities, whereby the good/service is
over-produced/consumed, and this is due to the
high consumer demand.
Demand for
demerit goods is high as a result of
private benefit exceeding social benefit. Consumers are going to demand more of a good/service if the
private benefit is high. This
high demand is again met with
high supply (the
free market equilibrium/
private optimumagain), and therefore results in a
higher price.
To eliminate
negative externalities, the government will intervene in the market with the aim of either decreasing demand or supply to reach the
social optimum.
Obviously, looking at the respective diagrams may help with your understanding of this.
I've found that most exam questions which require you to refer to positive/negative externalities will usually ask more about how to achieve the social optimum, as opposed to asking about the price of the good/service in question—so I wouldn't sweat it! But the point of under/over-production is definitely important to understand.
Hope this helped!
(somewhat)