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Maclaurin Series Question

Hi, I'm working on a question about Maclaurin Series:

Show that, if you assume that a function can be differentiated by differentiating each term of its Maclaurin expanion, you get the correct results for
a) d/dx e^x b) d/dx sinx c) d/dx ln(1+x) d) d/dx sqrt(1+x)

For part a, I have tried to use the standard result for e^x and differentiate it, giving 1+x+(1/2)x^2+... but d/dx e^x is e^x so I don't really understand what I'm meant to do next.
Any help would be appreciated, thanks.
Reply 1
Original post by Cyanforest
Hi, I'm working on a question about Maclaurin Series:

Show that, if you assume that a function can be differentiated by differentiating each term of its Maclaurin expanion, you get the correct results for
a) d/dx e^x b) d/dx sinx c) d/dx ln(1+x) d) d/dx sqrt(1+x)

For part a, I have tried to use the standard result for e^x and differentiate it, giving 1+x+(1/2)x^2+... but d/dx e^x is e^x so I don't really understand what I'm meant to do next.
Any help would be appreciated, thanks.


When you differentiate the series expansion of e^x, you get the exact same series expansion, which proves that d/dx(e^x) = e^x. So you have done the question lol
Reply 2
Original post by Cyanforest
Hi, I'm working on a question about Maclaurin Series:

Show that, if you assume that a function can be differentiated by differentiating each term of its Maclaurin expanion, you get the correct results for
a) d/dx e^x b) d/dx sinx c) d/dx ln(1+x) d) d/dx sqrt(1+x)

For part a, I have tried to use the standard result for e^x and differentiate it, giving 1+x+(1/2)x^2+... but d/dx e^x is e^x so I don't really understand what I'm meant to do next.
Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

Just checking: is this A-level or university?
Reply 3
Original post by DFranklin
Just checking: is this A-level or university?


A-Level Further Maths
Reply 4
Original post by yzven
A-Level Further Maths

That's fine then (I think you'd need a little more detail at university level).
Reply 5
Original post by yzven
When you differentiate the series expansion of e^x, you get the exact same series expansion, which proves that d/dx(e^x) = e^x. So you have done the question lol


Maybe I'm being picky, but it only verifies the result. Doesn't prove it. Unless u derive the expansion without differentiating.
Reply 6
Original post by yzven
When you differentiate the series expansion of e^x, you get the exact same series expansion, which proves that d/dx(e^x) = e^x. So you have done the question lol


Original post by BigJ123
Maybe I'm being picky, but it only verifies the result. Doesn't prove it. Unless u derive the expansion without differentiating.


Strictly speaking, the question says "show you get the correct result" (and isn't terribly clear what it means (*)). It doesn't ask you to prove d/dx(e^x) = e^x.

(*) What I would think is expected is:

(a) Find (which may mean "look up" ) the Maclaurin expansion. i.e. f(x)=anxnf(x) = \sum a_n x^n, where we have a formula for a_n in terms of n.
(b) Differentiate f(x) and then find the Maclaurin expansion for f'(x), i.e. f(x)=bnxnf'(x) = \sum b_n x^n.
(c) Differentiate the series in (a) term by term to get f(x)=nanxn1f'(x) = \sum n a_n x^{n-1}
(d) Verify that these series are the same. That is, (comparing coefficients of x^n), nan=bn1n a_n = b_{n-1} for n0n \neq 0.

At A-level, it's probably fine to do it for the first 3 terms or so, an university I'd expect you to do it for all n.

At the same time - it's worth noting that it's actually tautologically true that the series have to match up: by definition

an=f(n)(0)n!a_n = \dfrac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!} and bn=g(n)(0)n!b_n = \dfrac{g^{(n)}(0)}{n!}, where g(x) = f'(x). So in fact bn=f(n+1)(0)n!=(n+1)an+1b_n = \dfrac{f^{(n+1)}(0)}{n!} = (n+1)a_{n+1}.
Reply 7
Original post by DFranklin
Strictly speaking, the question says "show you get the correct result" (and isn't terribly clear what it means (*)). It doesn't ask you to prove d/dx(e^x) = e^x.

(*) What I would think is expected is:

(a) Find (which may mean "look up" ) the Maclaurin expansion. i.e. f(x)=anxnf(x) = \sum a_n x^n, where we have a formula for a_n in terms of n.
(b) Differentiate f(x) and then find the Maclaurin expansion for f'(x), i.e. f(x)=bnxnf'(x) = \sum b_n x^n.
(c) Differentiate the series in (a) term by term to get f(x)=nanxn1f'(x) = \sum n a_n x^{n-1}
(d) Verify that these series are the same. That is, (comparing coefficients of x^n), nan=bn1n a_n = b_{n-1} for n0n \neq 0.

At A-level, it's probably fine to do it for the first 3 terms or so, an university I'd expect you to do it for all n.

At the same time - it's worth noting that it's actually tautologically true that the series have to match up: by definition

an=f(n)(0)n!a_n = \dfrac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!} and bn=g(n)(0)n!b_n = \dfrac{g^{(n)}(0)}{n!}, where g(x) = f'(x). So in fact bn=f(n+1)(0)n!=(n+1)an+1b_n = \dfrac{f^{(n+1)}(0)}{n!} = (n+1)a_{n+1}.


Yeah I was just being picky on what the guy replied with. Interesting though.

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