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Do you believe in a superior race?

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Original post by Pyramidologist
All Caucasoids have thin noses, and orthognathic jaws. There is no overlap. Negroids in contrast have wide noses, and extreme alveolar and facial prognathism. Just by quickly glancing at a skull, a forensic scientist can tell its racial affinity based on its nasal index and cephalometric angle(s) of the jaw.
There isn't a precipitous shift once a geographical area is crossed. Your own evidence doesn't even support the existence of three or five distinct clusters, it states in no unclear terms that there are a minimum of 14, after which the data become redundant.

Every argument you have presented can apply to any other genetic variable that has a marked geographic stratification; the difference is that you are socially constructing the notion/arbitrarily declaring that your genetic variable is more significant than another. I can equally argue the absence of the HLA-C*16:02 allele outside the 'Mesenea boundary' means there are distinct 'races' that conform to this 'delineation' and that mine is more significant than yours. However, biology has no intrinsically significant variables, as everything together creates an individual; any declaration that one is necessarily and unilaterally more significant than another is socially constructed.

Btw, you can determine your race, merely with a pencil or pen -

First make sure your jaw is occluded (closed) with teeth touching together, and then place a pencil (or pen) vertically ''with one end on the nasal spine midline at base of nasal aperture'' (Bass, 1995, p. 87). If the other side of the pencil (or pen) touches, or is very close to the chin then you are orthognathous (Caucasoid).

Negroids and Mongoloids fail this test. For the pencil or pen to reach the jaw from the base of the nose, you would have to rip off their mouth and mid-facial section...
Admixture is everywhere and is gradational. There is not a precipitous shift once a geographical area is crossed.

It is already known that masticatory stress and environment have a major influence on cranial structure, which fundamentally undermines its reliability. This is why forensic scientists cannot and do not rely on a single variable to determine likely geographic origin with any degree of accuracy; doing so would also validate Ousley et al.'s (2009) assertion that it is akin to using blood group as a measurement.

No single craniometric variable has an identical geographic distribution to another craniometric variable (like every other biological variable), which is why using more increases the accuracy (if they were coterminous, using any single one would result in 100% regional accuracy). Ipso facto, every craniometric variable overlaps the boundaries you claim exist, but to varying extents (like every other biological variable). Consequently,multiple ones are selectively used together to allocate people to predetermined boundaries.

"[...] [W]hen an index not designed to accentuate differences between groups is used, the contrast in skull shape between three major regions of the globe (Europe, Asia, and Africa) becomes ephemeral" (Strauss and Hubbe, 2010). Natural admixture means multiple traits are used. You are begging the question by suggesting something is not in situ, when what constitutes 'in situ' is contingent on the same variable under scrutiny.

They arbitrarily select variables and cross-reference them to conform to a priori delineations. Your evidence demonstrated a minimum of 14 clusters can be identified before the data become redundant and Ousley et al.'s evidence demonstrated any number of clusters can be identified, including between north and south Japanese people and 'white' men of different generations.

You said in post #61 and thereafter ("I already gave you the geographical boundaries, with sources." (#249)) that Rosenberg et al.'s (2002) findings correspond to the boundaries used in mainstream forensic anthropology, but now you're suggesting there is such thing as a pure 'race' with no genetic overlap, traits aren't 'in situ' according to the boundaries presented in #61 and east Africans are a product of admixture (despite originally suggesting they were "negroids", as per the "classic tripartite [...] racial divisions[noparse]").[/noparse] Severe backtracking here, especially considering Rosenberg et al.'s results did not indicate a maximum of five or six clusters (I don't even know where you got three from, as there are clearly more than three at k = 6 and that image also incorrectly claims there are four) and none of the populations sampled were without admixture (other studies of genetic distribution reveal a continuum of genetic change, as opposed to discrete clusters), which means any skull you identify as a 'pure' archetype is quite simply not. Everywhere has admixture, which is what I've been saying from the start. Quantitative genetics are a far more reliable and accurate basis of assessment for biological variance than qualitative craniology. "Very close"... very scientific and replicable. :rolleyes:
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by Pyramidologist
Eurasians have Neanderthal DNA, while non-Eurasian races don't. For example, we can find Neanderthal traits in modern Caucasoids, but not in Negroids. This is just another reality that confirms race.
The distribution, as demonstrated in those images a few pages ago, of Neanderthal loci are in gross violation of the biological trichotomy you claim exists. Declaring there are non-overlapping, discrete groups is evidently absolutely fallacious.

When referring to ear wax it is Africans and Europeans vs. East Asians. When referring to Neanderthal DNA it is Europeans and Asians vs. sub-Saharan Africans. When referring to craniology it is Europeans vs. East Asians vs. west Africans... All of your arguments are disjointed and incompatible with each other. Your logic is flawed and inconsistent, and you continuously flip from one division to another depending on the topic, which illustrates the biological impossibility of there being static, coterminous, discrete and objective 'races'.

It is a social construct where people selectively choose and pretermit traits depending on what they arbitrarily wish to prioritise.
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by ribenablob
It is true that skin colour does not define a person. It is instead, the shape of their skull and their actual genetic make up. The reason for people getting taller is because there is more food available whilst the human is growing today than there use to be.

These days, due to migration, 'race' does not have a place in this world anymore. It is more about your appearance. So say there were 5 dark skinned-brown men aged 20, but all from different parts of the world, e.g. Sweden, South Africa, New York, London, Australia, they are all described as 'Negroid'. The same is with 5 white men aged 20, in Sweden, South Africa, New York, London, Australia - 'Caucasian'.
However, the 'Negroid' and 'Caucasian' terms are related to skull shape rather than outside appearance of skin colour. I know that there are all kinds of shapes of skulls within 'Negroids' and within 'Caucasians' but there are significant differences between the 2.

amp_60_2_181_fig3a.gif - the best comparison I could find.

Also, albino Asians look European.
http://www.thesun.co.uk/sol/homepage/features/4221017/The-worlds-biggest-albino-clan-are-living-in-Coventry.html

http://realhistoryww.com/world_history/ancient/Dobruja_Thrace_1.htm#albino
SCROLL DOWN

They look European - http://realhistoryww.com/world_history/ancient/Images_Thrace/Albinos.jpg


?

you just repeated what i said at the start, but then you start rambling on about albino asians? what are you talking about?
Original post by whyumadtho
The distribution, as demonstrated in those images a few pages ago, of Neanderthal loci are in gross violation of the biological trichotomy you claim exists. Declaring there are non-overlapping, discrete groups is evidently absolutely fallacious.

Only Eurasians have Neanderthal DNA, Negroids for example don't have Neanderthal genes.

When referring to ear wax it is Africans and Europeans vs. East Asians. When referring to Neanderthal DNA it is Europeans and Asians vs. sub-Saharan Africans. When referring to craniology it is Europeans vs. East Asians vs. west Africans... All of your arguments are disjointed and incompatible with each other. Your logic is flawed and inconsistent, and you continuously flip from one division to another depending on the topic, which illustrates the biological impossibility of there being static, coterminous, discrete and objective 'races'.

It is a social construct where people selectively choose and pretermit traits depending on what they arbitrarily wish to prioritise.


I've never used these terms. I've used Caucasoid, Negroid and Mongoloid. All you are doing once again is repeating debunked claims, and now a straw man. Boring.
Original post by whyumadtho
There isn't a precipitous shift once a geographical area is crossed. Your own evidence doesn't even support the existence of three or five distinct clusters, it states in no unclear terms that there are a minimum of 14, after which the data become redundant.

Every argument you have presented can apply to any other genetic variable that has a marked geographic stratification; the difference is that you are socially constructing the notion/arbitrarily declaring that your genetic variable is more significant than another. I can equally argue the absence of the HLA-C*16:02 allele outside the 'Mesenea boundary' means there are distinct 'races' that conform to this 'delineation' and that mine is more significant than yours. However, biology has no intrinsically significant variables, as everything together creates an individual; any declaration that one is necessarily and unilaterally more significant than another is socially constructed.

Admixture is everywhere and is gradational. There is not a precipitous shift once a geographical area is crossed.

It is already known that masticatory stress and environment have a major influence on cranial structure, which fundamentally undermines its reliability. This is why forensic scientists cannot and do not rely on a single variable to determine likely geographic origin with any degree of accuracy; doing so would also validate Ousley et al.'s (2009) assertion that it is akin to using blood group as a measurement.

No single craniometric variable has an identical geographic distribution to another craniometric variable (like every other biological variable), which is why using more increases the accuracy (if they were coterminous, using any single one would result in 100% regional accuracy). Ipso facto, every craniometric variable overlaps the boundaries you claim exist, but to varying extents (like every other biological variable). Consequently,multiple ones are selectively used together to allocate people to predetermined boundaries.

"[...] [W]hen an index not designed to accentuate differences between groups is used, the contrast in skull shape between three major regions of the globe (Europe, Asia, and Africa) becomes ephemeral" (Strauss and Hubbe, 2010). Natural admixture means multiple traits are used. You are begging the question by suggesting something is not in situ, when what constitutes 'in situ' is contingent on the same variable under scrutiny.

They arbitrarily select variables and cross-reference them to conform to a priori delineations. Your evidence demonstrated a minimum of 14 clusters can be identified before the data become redundant and Ousley et al.'s evidence demonstrated any number of clusters can be identified, including between north and south Japanese people and 'white' men of different generations.

You said in post #61 and thereafter ("I already gave you the geographical boundaries, with sources." (#249)) that Rosenberg et al.'s (2002) findings correspond to the boundaries used in mainstream forensic anthropology, but now you're suggesting there is such thing as a pure 'race' with no genetic overlap, traits aren't 'in situ' according to the boundaries presented in #61 and east Africans are a product of admixture (despite originally suggesting they were "negroids", as per the "classic tripartite [...] racial divisions[noparse]").[/noparse] Severe backtracking here, especially considering Rosenberg et al.'s results did not indicate a maximum of five or six clusters (I don't even know where you got three from, as there are clearly more than three at k = 6 and that image also incorrectly claims there are four) and none of the populations sampled were without admixture (other studies of genetic distribution reveal a continuum of genetic change, as opposed to discrete clusters), which means any skull you identify as a 'pure' archetype is quite simply not. Everywhere has admixture, which is what I've been saying from the start. Quantitative genetics are a far more reliable and accurate basis of assessment for biological variance than qualitative craniology. "Very close"... very scientific and replicable. :rolleyes:


blah blah blah. You have nothing to refute the reality of race in regards to craniometric distinction. You can continue to repeat the same old fantasy of ''overlaps'' but when i ask for you to prove overlaps exist, you fail. If overlaps exist - where are the orthognathic or straight haired Negroids?
You just don't get Science or archaeology do you? Wow. :s-smilie:
And btw, you still haven't told us what metric measurements were used in Ousley et al (2009) etc. The reason you won't, is because you know when compared to other geographical populations (races), those in-group differences become insignificant. Two Nigerians look similar and cluster compared to two japanese (n + s) despite in-group variation. Yet you are trying to claim minor variation makes racial taxonomy invalid. Epic fail, its just a really stupid argument.
Original post by Pyramidologist
Only Eurasians have Neanderthal DNA, Negroids for example don't have Neanderthal genes.
Only 'Meseneans' have the HLA-C*16:02 allele; people outside of the 'Mesenea boundary' don't have this allele.

Apply this reasoning to every other allele in the human genome. Your measure is no more important than my measure and the thousands of other measurements that can be made.

I've never used these terms. I've used Caucasoid, Negroid and Mongoloid. All you are doing once again is repeating debunked claims, and now a straw man. Boring.
'Black', 'white', 'Caucasoid', 'Mongoloid', 'Mesenean'; none of them are naturally more significant than another because they all require the socially constructed selective choosing and pretermission of overlapping and non-coterminous biological traits.
Original post by Pyramidologist
blah blah blah. You have nothing to refute the reality of race in regards to craniometric distinction. You can continue to repeat the same old fantasy of ''overlaps'' but when i ask for you to prove overlaps exist, you fail. If overlaps exist - where are the orthognathic or straight haired Negroids?
Where is the HLA-C*16:02 allele amongst Oceanians; northwest, northeast, southeast, south and east Asians; northwest Europeans; and south, central and West Africans (which I will collectively term the 'Onnsseanescwa boundary', with the demonym being 'Onnsseanescwans')? My Mesenean and Onnsseanescwan 'races' don't coincide with yours, so why do you get priority in dividing humanity? Seems like a social construct to me.

I've demonstrated overlaps exist by the fact choosing any single trait doesn't confer 100% accuracy. Why do forensic anthropologists use multiple measures when isolating somebody to a continent if one is enough to divide people with 100% accuracy into three regions? For the lolz? Only when multiple markers are used is a high degree of regional accuracy possible, as singular traits overlap. The Norse sample appeared in six different clusters at k=14—how is this possible if there were no intercontinental overlap?

Notice how you keep on using extremes because you are conscious of the overlap. There are straight-haired Europeans and Asians, which means this variable overlaps. Dimensions of the jaw are heavily influenced by masticatory habits and environmental circumstances, which makes it unreliable as a measure. Ever heard of overbite/malocclusion? They are common conditions heavily influenced by the actions of sucking one's thumb, nail biting, bad posture, etc. In what way is this reliable if it can be so easily modified? This is why multiple markers are arbitrarily used to remove the inaccuracies and overlaps of any single method when trying to delineate biodiversity to a socially constructed boundary. As I said, skulls are not homogenous, as everyone is unique, and there is not a precipitous shift once an area is crossed because traits are gradational.
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by Pyramidologist
And btw, you still haven't told us what metric measurements were used in Ousley et al (2009) etc. The reason you won't, is because you know when compared to other geographical populations (races), those in-group differences become insignificant. Two Nigerians look similar and cluster compared to two japanese (n + s) despite in-group variation. Yet you are trying to claim minor variation makes racial taxonomy invalid. Epic fail, its just a really stupid argument.


The same variables that mean north and south Japanese people aren't identical. People will cluster into two groups at k=2, so why not stop there? People will cluster into three groups at k=3, so why not stop there? The in-group differences at K=3 become 'insignificant' when compared to k=2. People will cluster into four groups at k=4, so why not stop there? The in-group differences at K=4 become 'insignificant' when compared to k=3. And so on. There is no logical stopping point and your argument can apply to anything. The scale you have chosen is arbitrary and is with the sole intention of conforming to socially constructed delineations.

Your own evidence demonstrates at least 14 clusters can be identified with a high accuracy rate of separation at k=14, after which Howells data become inadequate. Ousley et al. (2009) demonstrated with a discriminant function analysis that north and south Japanese people and 'white' men from different generations can be separated with a high accuracy rate. If you are arbitrarily positing k=3/k=5 are significant as 'races', Ousley et al.'s position that south and north Japanese people are significant as 'races' is equally valid. K=2 would be the highest order of separation, but that violates your a priori, socially constructed beliefs of how humanity 'should be divided' (into three 'groups'). You are conscious that greater divisions can be made, so you arbitrarily decided to stop at k=3/k=5, despite both your and my evidence demonstrating more clusters can be identified with a high degree of accuracy at k=14 and using discriminant function analyses up to whatever degree of separation one desires. But a minimum of 14 clusters or 'races' (Ousley et al. demonstrated the number of 'races' is only limited to the sample size and the measures used) as per your source doesn't correspond with your socially constructed beliefs so you stick to k=3/k=5, despite there being no logical reason to do so. You're all washed up and you're fully aware of it.

And that is just in respect to craniology; you still have to account for the innumerable other geographically stratified, overlapping and non-coterminous biological traits that would serve as 'races' by your logic, but do not conform in any way to the 'races' you claim 'exist' in craniology.

'Meseneans' cluster together despite in-group variation. What is your point?
(edited 11 years ago)
Why do IQ results have an effect on superiority? And to everybody claiming intelligence creates superiority, define intelligence.
Mixed race white/black people are clearly superior. Look at Obama. The only thing that beats them is mixed asian-white, who are the most attractive and are often very intelligent for socio-cultural reasons.
Original post by Connor Wyse
?

you just repeated what i said at the start, but then you start rambling on about albino asians? what are you talking about?


Basically, I was saying how humans are classed depending more on skull shape and eyes and nose shape, rather than skin colour.

Then, I was just highlighting how some albino Asians could be classified as 'Caucaisan', proving that the classification system is not only due to skin colour.

http://worldsamazinginformation.blogspot.co.uk/2012/04/worlds-biggest-albino-family-in-india.html
Original post by whyumadtho
Only 'Meseneans' have the HLA-C*16:02 allele; people outside of the 'Mesenea boundary' don't have this allele.

Apply this reasoning to every other allele in the human genome. Your measure is no more important than my measure and the thousands of other measurements that can be made.

'Black', 'white', 'Caucasoid', 'Mongoloid', 'Mesenean'; none of them are naturally more significant than another because they all require the socially constructed selective choosing and pretermission of overlapping and non-coterminous biological traits.


Still waiting for you to prove this ''overlapping''...

Where are those orthognathic Negroids?
Original post by whyumadtho
The same variables that mean north and south Japanese people aren't identical. People will cluster into two groups at k=2, so why not stop there? People will cluster into three groups at k=3, so why not stop there? The in-group differences at K=3 become 'insignificant' when compared to k=2. People will cluster into four groups at k=4, so why not stop there? The in-group differences at K=4 become 'insignificant' when compared to k=3. And so on. There is no logical stopping point and your argument can apply to anything. The scale you have chosen is arbitrary and is with the sole intention of conforming to socially constructed delineations.

Your own evidence demonstrates at least 14 clusters can be identified with a high accuracy rate of separation at k=14, after which Howells data become inadequate. Ousley et al. (2009) demonstrated with a discriminant function analysis that north and south Japanese people and 'white' men from different generations can be separated with a high accuracy rate. If you are arbitrarily positing k=3/k=5 are significant as 'races', Ousley et al.'s position that south and north Japanese people are significant as 'races' is equally valid. K=2 would be the highest order of separation, but that violates your a priori, socially constructed beliefs of how humanity 'should be divided' (into three 'groups'). You are conscious that greater divisions can be made, so you arbitrarily decided to stop at k=3/k=5, despite both your and my evidence demonstrating more clusters can be identified with a high degree of accuracy at k=14 and using discriminant function analyses up to whatever degree of separation one desires. But a minimum of 14 clusters or 'races' (Ousley et al. demonstrated the number of 'races' is only limited to the sample size and the measures used) as per your source doesn't correspond with your socially constructed beliefs so you stick to k=3/k=5, despite there being no logical reason to do so. You're all washed up and you're fully aware of it.

And that is just in respect to craniology; you still have to account for the innumerable other geographically stratified, overlapping and non-coterminous biological traits that would serve as 'races' by your logic, but do not conform in any way to the 'races' you claim 'exist' in craniology.

'Meseneans' cluster together despite in-group variation. What is your point?


The stuff you are repeating was debunked back in the 60's. Race deniars such as Ashley Montagu were using the exact same arguments. The same old fallacy of confusing race with subrace...

Here's what Garn & Coon put out to Montagu -

''...It is possible to achieve agreement on the number of races of mankind, once we distinguish between geographical races and local and microgeographical races. If a geographical race is defined as a collection of similar populations inhabiting a broad continental area... then the number of geographical races of man is approximately six or seven.

Clearly one can recognise a European and Western Asiatic geographical race conforming to Blumenbach's category ''Caucasian''.
- Readings on Race, Ed. Stanley M. Garn, 1960, p. 15
^ The 14 clusters in Howell's study are not races, they include subraces.
Reply 396
Races definitely have differing strengths in certain fields and there is plenty statistical evidence (and anecdotal) to prove this.

Black people literally have a gene that makes them faster, more enduring runners.
IMO Asian people are in general very good at maths. ( My maths teacher who studied maths at Cambridge told me that what he did in his 2nd year was done by a pupil in Year 10 at her Saturday Korean school!)
and so on..

These differences are brought about by both genetic and environmental factors and can't simple be ignored because people like to claim 'all races are the same' to avoid even the slightest hint of racism when in fact, it is more of a celebration of races to believe in different strengths rather than slander.
Original post by Pyramidologist
.

If you're going to completely ignore the counterarguments I have made in response to your circular reasoning and present grossly outdated sources for your thoroughly refuted nonsense that arbitrarily divides people despite no logical reason to do so, this debate has ended.

You're washed up and haven't been presenting any new arguments or addressed your fundamentally fallacious circular reasoning.
Original post by whyumadtho
If you're going to completely ignore the counterarguments I have made in response to your circular reasoning and present grossly outdated sources for your thoroughly refuted nonsense that arbitrarily divides people despite no logical reason to do so, this debate has ended.

You're washed up and haven't been presenting any new arguments or addressed your fundamentally fallacious circular reasoning.


You failed to adress any of my points. All you continued to do was spam fantasy about ''overlap'', when morphological traits do not overlap, corresponding to geographical boundaries, hence a forensic anthropologist can identify race based on skeletal traits.

Gill, 2001 -

First, I have found that forensic anthropologists attain a high degree of accuracy in determining geographic racial affinities (white, black, American Indian, etc.) by utilizing both new and traditional methods of bone analysis. Many well-conducted studies were reported in the late 1980s and 1990s that test methods objectively for percentage of correct placement. Numerous individual methods involving midfacial measurements, femur traits, and so on are over 80 percent accurate alone, and in combination produce very high levels of accuracy. No forensic anthropologist would make a racial assessment based upon just one of these methods, but in combination they can make very reliable assessments, just as in determining sex or age. In other words, multiple criteria are the key to success in all of these determinations.

"The 'reality of race' therefore depends more on the definition of reality than on the definition of race. If we choose to accept the system of racial taxonomy that physical anthropologists have traditionally established—major races: black, white, etc.—then one can classify human skeletons within it just as well as one can living humans. The bony traits of the nose, mouth, femur, and cranium are just as revealing to a good osteologist as skin color, hair form, nose form, and lips to the perceptive observer of living humanity. I have been able to prove to myself over the years, in actual legal cases, that I am more accurate at assessing race from skeletal remains than from looking at living people standing before me. So those of us in forensic anthropology know that the skeleton reflects race, whether 'real' or not, just as well if not better than superficial soft tissue does. The idea that race is 'only skin deep' is simply not true, as any experienced forensic anthropologist will affirm.

"Morphological characteristics...like skin color, hair form, bone traits, eyes, and lips tend to follow geographic boundaries coinciding often with climatic zones. This is not surprising since the selective forces of climate are probably the primary forces of nature that have shaped human races with regard not only to skin color and hair form but also the underlying bony structures of the nose, cheekbones, etc. (For example, more prominent noses humidify air better.) As far as we know, blood-factor frequencies [used to deny race] are not shaped by these same climatic factors.

"Those who believe that the concept of race is valid do not discredit the notion of clines, however. Yet those with the clinal perspective who believe that races are not real do try to discredit the evidence of skeletal biology. Why this bias from the 'race denial' faction? This bias seems to stem largely from socio-political motivation and not science at all. For the time being at least, the people in 'race denial' are in 'reality denial' as well. Their motivation (a positive one) is that they have come to believe that the race concept is socially dangerous. In other words, they have convinced themselves that race promotes racism. Therefore, they have pushed the politically correct agenda that human races are not biologically real, no matter what the evidence."


As usual you will just ignore all these facts. Your knowledge on physical anthropology is zilch.
Original post by Pyramidologist
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Why is it not possible to attain 100% accuracy with a single cranial trait?

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