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Help with variance please?

The question is this:

A six-sided die has some of its face showing the number 0 and the rest showing the number 1 so that p is the probability of getting a 1 when the die is thrown and q is the probability of getting a 0. If the random variable X is the value showing when the die is rolled,

a) fine E(X) and Var(X)

First I drew up a table: x: 0 1
P(X=x): q p

The table is correct because I checked it in the solution bank. However, when I apply the rule for working out variance: x^2 times P(X=x) for all the values, I get Var(X) = p.
Is this not correct? Because the solution bank says the answer is pq or p(1-p) and I can't work out how they got that answer?

By the way this question is from Edexcel S4 book - Exercise 1E question 7.
Reply 1
Original post by Dragonrage973
The question is this:

A six-sided die has some of its face showing the number 0 and the rest showing the number 1 so that p is the probability of getting a 1 when the die is thrown and q is the probability of getting a 0. If the random variable X is the value showing when the die is rolled,

a) fine E(X) and Var(X)

First I drew up a table: x: 0 1
P(X=x): q p

The table is correct because I checked it in the solution bank. However, when I apply the rule for working out variance: x^2 times P(X=x) for all the values, I get Var(X) = p.
Is this not correct? Because the solution bank says the answer is pq or p(1-p) and I can't work out how they got that answer?

By the way this question is from Edexcel S4 book - Exercise 1E question 7.


E(X)=p

E(X^2)=p

Var(X)=E(X^2)-E(X)^2=.........
Reply 2
Original post by Dragonrage973
The question is this:

A six-sided die has some of its face showing the number 0 and the rest showing the number 1 so that p is the probability of getting a 1 when the die is thrown and q is the probability of getting a 0. If the random variable X is the value showing when the die is rolled,

a) fine E(X) and Var(X)

First I drew up a table: x: 0 1
P(X=x): q p

The table is correct because I checked it in the solution bank. However, when I apply the rule for working out variance: x^2 times P(X=x) for all the values, I get Var(X) = p.
Is this not correct? Because the solution bank says the answer is pq or p(1-p) and I can't work out how they got that answer?

By the way this question is from Edexcel S4 book - Exercise 1E question 7.


You need to subtract the expected value squared.
Reply 3
Original post by BabyMaths
E(X)=p

E(X^2)=p

Var(X)=E(X^2)-E(X)^2=.........


Oh right I forgot about that. Makes sense now. Thanks! :smile:
Reply 4
Original post by Music99
You need to subtract the expected value squared.


Thanks, I know now. What I was doing was working out E(X^2) and thinking that was Var(X). Silly me :tongue:
Reply 5
Original post by Dragonrage973
Thanks, I know now. What I was doing was working out E(X^2) and thinking that was Var(X). Silly me :tongue:


ah I've done that before :P.

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