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Non-Muslims would you?
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Original post by mkap
whats wrong with having your own little system where its not interfering with anyone else
Example, if a bank says no headwear such as hats an everyone abides by that and then a muslim woman refuses to conform well thats just a simple example of how it does affect other people.
Original post by mkap
Muslims shouldn't really impose Sharia law on non Muslims; they're not Muslims. The UK law shouldn't be changed to sharia law as there are non Muslims in the UK. They should be allowed Sharia Courts in the UK where Muslims can deal with their own matters.
However countries where there is Sharia Law have low rates of adultery, babies out of wedlock, less drug abusers, rapists and thefts (please don bring in the IS argument) compared to western countries where you have children who don't know who there father is.
However countries where there is Sharia Law have low rates of adultery, babies out of wedlock, less drug abusers, rapists and thefts (please don bring in the IS argument) compared to western countries where you have children who don't know who there father is.
Why can't I bring the IS argument? So what happens when Sharia law contradicts British law? Which law comes first? You would think as a British citizen, UK law comes first...? What if a Muslim do not want to appear in a Shariah court but other Muslims want him/her to abide by it, so basically peer pressure? If you can say any rule that contradicts British law will not have any jurisdiction in Shariah courts, then I guess you can have Shariah courts but don't call it that - you may as well just call it 'Muslim counselling' because it isn't full 'Shariah law'.
And regards to your "lower crime rate"... Assuming you can prove it (I'm still skeptical), would you support death penalty and torture if it brought down crime, would you support gitmo and not having due process/legal representation (going against habeus corpus and magna carta) if it brought down terrorism? and why would anyone report rape and adultery when there is a culture of victim-blaming (see reactions of the Cologne rape scandals) and adultery is punishable by lashes/death anyway?
Original post by ViewsFromSi6
Why aren't you running for presidency? You will surely get votes right?
Original post by ViewsFromSi6
Was talking about US
Original post by Xelfrost
I'm not a US citizen. I can't legally run.
There is an indoctrinated belief that Shariah is good by default/by definition. If something says "Shariah-compliant", that is code word for "good"... but when questioned on it further, anything that isn't "perceived" as good (by the west anyway) is immediately labelled "un-islamic" ... if you want Shariah law, by whose terms, what standards, which interpretation? And who gets to decide what is "Islamic" and "un-islamic"?
Original post by mkap
Nope im just saying that let Muslims do what the flip they want, if you dont like the Sharia law then dont abide to it, no one is making you. Let Muslims do their own things, and you do your own thing.
Nope im just saying that let Muslims do what the flip they want, if you dont like the Sharia law then dont abide to it, no one is making you. Let Muslims do their own things, and you do your own thing.
You're really stupid.
Please take that in a positive way as motivation to educate yourself.
Have a good day.
Original post by mkap
They should be allowed Sharia Courts in the UK where Muslims can deal with their own matters.
No this should NOT be the case. If you allow every group in a country to run its own court system you have nothing short of anarchy. This is not how nation states run or should ever run.
You use the court system in place and if that isn't to your fancy then go live someplace else.
What you suggest is nothing short of ludicrous.
Original post by ViewsFromSi6
Imagine a less stricter version of sharia law be implanted. Crime will decrease considerably. Would you be happy?
I don't see the point of asking this question when they aren't even following sharia law ??
Muslims are the only ones expected to follow Sharia Laws not non-Muslims. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH), wrote the Charter of Medina in which Muslims were held to Shariah Law, and Jews to the Law of the Torah.
Not a single non-Muslim was held to Shariah because Shariah itself forbids compulsion.
The Qur'an clearly says, "There is no compulsion in religion" [2:257]
Original post by FluffyCherry
Muslims are the only ones expected to follow Sharia Laws not non-Muslims.
Muslims are the only ones expected to follow Sharia Laws not non-Muslims.
What if a Muslim commits an offence against a non-Muslim? How is that dealt with?
Original post by walking in sand
What if a Muslim commits an offence against a non-Muslim? How is that dealt with?
Well I actually don't know as it's upto the court when dealing with those kind of stuff.
Don't like UK Laws, leave.
Original post by FluffyCherry
Well I actually don't know as it's upto the court when dealing with those kind of stuff.
The sharia court, or the British court(s)?
Original post by walking in sand
The sharia court, or the British court(s)?
The British Court of course as a non-Muslim would obviously not use Sharia.
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
The British Court of course as a non-Muslim would obviously not use Sharia.
But then the Muslim would find themselves outside of the jurisdiction of the sharia court?
Original post by walking in sand
The sharia court, or the British court(s)?
The British court obv, you do know sharia courts cannot overrule regular or British courts .
Original post by FluffyCherry
Muslims are the only ones expected to follow Sharia Laws not non-Muslims. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH), wrote the Charter of Medina in which Muslims were held to Shariah Law, and Jews to the Law of the Torah.
And eventually all Jews were killed or expelled.
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
The British Court of course as a non-Muslim would obviously not use Sharia.
Original post by FluffyCherry
The British court obv, you do know sharia courts cannot overrule regular courts .
OK. And if a non-Muslim commits an offence against a Muslim...?
Original post by walking in sand
But then the Muslim would find themselves outside of the jurisdiction of the sharia court?
It doesn't matter. If a Muslim lives here they are compelled to go to a British Court if they're summoned there for a crime they committed.
Original post by admonit
And eventually all Jews were killed or expelled.
You're dealing with an anti-semite: I remember her post about how no Israelis died during 9/11 from a while back (and I think she meant Jews, she couldn't even get that right).
Original post by walking in sand
OK. And if a non-Muslim commits an offence against a Muslim...?
The same.
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
The same.
So sharia courts, even if implemented, would only have jurisdiction over civil disputes between (solely) muslim parties, where both (/all) parties voluntarily agree to being subject to such jurisdiction?
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