Hey,
Can someone run through the different between these two rules please? I know the mischief rule is where the court looks at the law prior to the introduction of the Act in order to establish what gap in the law/mischief the Act was intended to remedy, and that the purposive approach is described as going beyond this by seeking to established what Parliament intended to achieve by the introduction of the Act - but what does this mean in real terms? Anyone got any case law examples?
My problem can be demonstrated by Smith v Hughes. The court looked at the law before the introduction of the Street Offences Act and found that the aim behind the act was to 'enable people to walk down the streets without being molested or solicited at by common prostitutes' - surely this would demonstrate the purposive approach as well?
I don't quite understand the difference that's my problem really.
Thanks