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Libertarian Socialist Society Thread!

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Original post by SciFiBoy
well, to be fair, a lot of Left Marxists follow to the idea that Communism is a classless stateless society, so any ad-vocation of central planning from them would be a short term thing if at all.

I think the main thing you are getting at here is Leninism or Marxism-Leninism as it is known (though given the debate over Marxist theory I take issue with the use of that term), anyway, certainly it is fair to criticize Leninism, indeed Libertarian Socialists and Anarchists almost universally reject Lenin and Leninism for similar reasons that 99% of the Left reject Stalin.

this video may be of interest to you, Chomsky basically explains what Lenin was about and why the Libertarian Left are opposed to Leninism:

*http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yQsceZ9skQI* link in case video won't embed for you

btw if you show this video to certain people on the Left they will have hissy fits I imagine :rofl:


FFS sorry about the amount of little spelling mistakes in my post like putting an s than didn't need to be there etc etc

I think it is fair to say that every form of socialism that has been tried has been the authoritarian kind, regardless of how pure it is, its's still the closest real world example(s) we have. Aside from 30's spain, and even then massive death and the eventual collapse of the social anarchist sects of the country are no less desirable that stalin and lenin's beuro nightmare.

And I do like Chomsky up until a certain point, I think his views on war, drugs, free speech, abortion and gay/gender right are superb, as with most libertarians, of any branch.

It all falls apart for me when he talks about economics, he is good when he directs his criticism at the West's practace of corporatism or 'actually existing capitalism'. I'm still suprised at the fact the a mainstream left-libertarian isn't a mutualist tbh. I don't think he really understand where we (libertarian right) are coming from. He is a linguist first and a sort of economic and social commentator second, or 3rd, or 4th, I dunno, he does a lotta stuff!

I know what his stance is on Murray Rothbard, I can offer some sympathy there. But I don't think he understand how well a classical liberal society would work. I think for it to work though, that particular country has to have developed very well socially and economically. I thjnk no society can ever start of like that, there always has to be development.

And I don't really get left marxism, since marx was left anyway, strictly speaking that left-right mean economics. I suppose that you could say some marxist are further left and more libertarain than others, and marx himself.

In my opinion, though I am not one, I think market anarchism/anarcho capitalism (i make the distinction because mutualists, georgists and agorists are market anarchists but not rightist) is the only true form of anarchism (or closest to it), see my post to Darkademic about 4 or 5 above this.

thanks for the vid
Original post by Classical Liberal
Money existed before the state. The notion of money did not come from the state. It came from the market. It came from free individuals trading goods and services who wanted a good that could be used for indirect trade. The state just stole the issuing power from the market.


Ah, the classic 'money from barter' myth. The problem with this theory? There isn't a shred of evidence to support it. In fact all the evidence suggests it didn't take place. The only place in history where barter economies exist is in societies that were already used to using money where suddenly the money became unavailable or unreliable (like 1990s Russia).

And you have still not answered my question. What if there was emergence of money. What will a Libertarian Socialist society do?


Nothing in particular, probably. People wouldn't be stopped from using money, whether it's credit or cash.

Well firstly most capitalism is a bottom up system.


From a perspective of a business as a unit, yes, a form of 'purist' capitalism would be bottom-up, but businesses are not the bottom. Internally, capitalist businesses operate on a top-down basis.


This notion that because there are some big firms in capitalism that capitalism is a top down system is not true. Big firms are only big because they serve a big market. And a a big market is the common man (notice how firms that only serve the rich a never big firms it firms like Microsoft and Ford that are big and serve the common man) . If it turns out that big firms are more efficient than smaller firms then what is the problem?

And this argument forgets that the vast majority of economic activity is done by small firms. Big firms, depending on how you define big, are the exception to the rule. That is why the you always hear people talking about how small firms can create jobs and ''kick'' start the economy. It is only because we all recognise big firms that people think capitalism is about big firms, it is just a perception bias.


What is important is not the size of the firm, but how it internally operates.

Original post by Darkademic
Show me a definition of capitalism where it says that "the many must be subjugated to the few".


Capitalism is characterised by wage-labour, the separation of labour from ownership (basically what is meant by 'private property in the means of production'). That there has to be more employees than employers is simple mathematics.

Don't be ridiculous. Capitalism is decentralised by its very nature. And planned? Really? Do businesses point guns at consumers and tell them what they want? In a planned economy there are no businesses, there is only the all-powerful state which dictates what should be produced, how much of it, and where it should be allocated; it throws natural supply and demand completely out of the window - the very opposite of capitalism.


As I said above, maybe at an individual business level (and only under some form of 'purist' capitalism would this even take place), but internally capitalist businesses operate on top-down planning.

Original post by prog2djent
Im sick of hearing 'socialism isn't centrally plannet' yadda yadda, No, not all socialisms are centrally planned, but orthodox marxism and communism


Most Libertarian socialists are not Marxists at all, and the ones that are are not 'orthodox marxists', they're generally Autonomists, Luxemburgists, Council Communists, etc.
Original post by prog2djent

I think it is fair to say that every form of socialism that has been tried has been the authoritarian kind


Err..
Anarchist Catalonia in the Spanish Civil War?
Revolutionary Russia before the Bolshevik coup in October 1917 (i.e. February-October)?
Zapatistas?
Makhnovist Ukraine?
Paris Commune?
The National Workshops in the 1848 French Revolution?
American Old West?
Native American tribes?
Virtually every other tribal or pre-state society?

I could go on. Pretty much every stateless society has been socialist of a sort and uprisings against states inevitably involve the socialist principles of popular self-organisation and self-management, along with participatory democracy (e.g. Hungary 1956, France 1968, Italy in the Biennio Rosso, the Mexican Revolution, Romania 1989, Egypt 2011, Germany 1918-19, etc).
Original post by anarchism101
Capitalism is characterised by wage-labour, the separation of labour from ownership (basically what is meant by 'private property in the means of production'). That there has to be more employees than employers is simple mathematics.

That's simply not true, but even if it was, employment is not subjugation. Subjugation implies a coercive relationship, and if it's not coercive then it's not a problem because what you're really referring to is an employer's right to dictate terms of employment, terms which are accepted voluntarily by employees.

However, I am a prime example of why it is not true that there have to be more employees than employers. I run my own business, and a lot of our work comes from other businesses who outsource their work to us because it's cheaper and more flexible than them having to employ people. If it became widespread that employment was less cost-effective than outsourcing, then the market would shift in that direction. Self-employment would become the norm rather than the exception. Capitalism is in no way characterised by wage-labour, it is characterised by whatever arises in a free-market.

Original post by anarchism101
As I said above, maybe at an individual business level (and only under some form of 'purist' capitalism would this even take place), but internally capitalist businesses operate on top-down planning.

How a business operates internally has nothing to do with whether an economy is centrally planned. Families usually operate using "top-down planning" too, but that obviously has nothing to do with the economy as a whole. How businesses choose to organise themeselves is their concern, and no-one elses.
Original post by Darkademic
That's simply not true, but even if it was, employment is not subjugation. Subjugation implies a coercive relationship, and if it's not coercive then it's not a problem because what you're really referring to is an employer's right to dictate terms of employment, terms which are accepted voluntarily by employees.

However, I am a prime example of why it is not true that there have to be more employees than employers. I run my own business, and a lot of our work comes from other businesses who outsource their work to us because it's cheaper and more flexible than them having to employ people. If it became widespread that employment was less cost-effective than outsourcing, then the market would shift in that direction. Self-employment would become the norm rather than the exception. Capitalism is in no way characterised by wage-labour, it is characterised by whatever arises in a free-market.


How a business operates internally has nothing to do with whether an economy is centrally planned. Families usually operate using "top-down planning" too, but that obviously has nothing to do with the economy as a whole. How businesses choose to organise themeselves is their concern, and no-one elses.


Most businesses these days are becomming less and less 'top down'.

You see, socialists as a whole think the whole thing is based upon wage labour, they are stuck in the 1800's.
Original post by Darkademic
That's simply not true, but even if it was, employment is not subjugation. Subjugation implies a coercive relationship, and if it's not coercive then it's not a problem because what you're really referring to is an employer's right to dictate terms of employment, terms which are accepted voluntarily by employees.


It may appear voluntary in the moment, if you take it out of its context, but workers are only in that situation because they have been systematically deprived of their own means of production during the creation of capitalism and since then. The situation that forces them to sell themselves as wage-labourers is what's been forced on them.

And Libsocs (well, all socialists tbh) oppose the separation of labour from ownership.

Capitalism is in no way characterised by wage-labour, it is characterised by whatever arises in a free-market.


Many mutualists will be happy to tell you that markets, and especially 'free markets' are not the same as capitalism. Capitalism is the only system where wage labour is widespread (depending on your point of view, you could say it's the only system where wage labour exists at all). However a market economy is not unique to capitalism.

How a business operates internally has nothing to do with whether an economy is centrally planned.


I didn't say it did, I said capitalist businesses internally operate on the basis of top-down central planning.

How businesses choose to organise themeselves is their concern, and no-one elses.


You're treating a business as a unit, as something that has one central thought, rather than being made up of individuals. Suppose you substitute the word 'businesses' for 'states'? Somehow I think you won't agree with that then.
Original post by anarchism101
Err..
Anarchist Catalonia in the Spanish Civil War?
Revolutionary Russia before the Bolshevik coup in October 1917 (i.e. February-October)?
Zapatistas?
Makhnovist Ukraine?
Paris Commune?
The National Workshops in the 1848 French Revolution?
American Old West?
Native American tribes?
Virtually every other tribal or pre-state society?

I could go on. Pretty much every stateless society has been socialist of a sort and uprisings against states inevitably involve the socialist principles of popular self-organisation and self-management, along with participatory democracy (e.g. Hungary 1956, France 1968, Italy in the Biennio Rosso, the Mexican Revolution, Romania 1989, Egypt 2011, Germany 1918-19, etc).



Great well done, you took an extract of my post and missed out what I said after it.

And thanks for the list, I didn't bother sleeping last night and I researched them all

For a start, the American Old west was a bastion of free market capitalism, some Mid North and North west states had tried their socialist society and it utterly failed,

Speaking of failure, as it the list. Yeah, well, it all goes hand in hand with massive death. The paris 'commune' lasted 2 months and the rest of them are never sustainable and have all failed. All I can see with that list of utter failure is a system taking place in terrible places anyway. I've always stood by the fact if social anarchy was to occur and atleast be successful to a certain extent is would and should occur in advanced social and economic societies, not 3rd rate economies with barbaric people.

And thanks, that really hammers it home, "ever tribal and pre-state society", great, cos' that's just what we want to go back to. Are you and anarcho-primitivist, those freaks are the worst of all.

The trouble with social anarchists in the 21st century, in the west, is that they are like "hurr durr screw the state herpy derpy screw the free market durka derrr!" and they depend so much on the system, they have benefited so much from it. My music tech at college basically defines himself as a libertarian socialist and said that he only thinks like that idealistically but in the real world would not want to live like that, would not want to enforce
anyone to live like that,

Your are essentially just the same as authoritarian leftists, you want to enforce your system on everyone else yet 99% of the population would never want to live in that system, you will turn our achievements so far back, ever time I think of anarchists I think of squaler, poverty, death.

You would rather everyone were poor so long as there were no rich or middle classes.

As I've said before, though I am not one, Anarcho-capitalism is the closest thing to capitalism that can be achieved



Some days I wish a revolution would be achieved, thing don't go according to plan, so there's a few million deaths here and there, and your ideal society can be achieved just so it will ****ing crumble and self destruct because of its very nature.

Atlaest I can identify with mutualists in some respects, especially Kevin Carson, less so with Proudhon.
(edited 12 years ago)
Original post by anarchism101
It may appear voluntary in the moment, if you take it out of its context, but workers are only in that situation because they have been systematically deprived of their own means of production during the creation of capitalism and since then. The situation that forces them to sell themselves as wage-labourers is what's been forced on them.

You can't be deprived of something you never had to begin with. It's not capitalism you're arguing against, it's reality; the mere fact that resources are finite and that individual experiences are mutually exclusive.

Original post by anarchism101
And Libsocs (well, all socialists tbh) oppose the separation of labour from ownership.

What do you mean by 'the separation of labour from ownership'?

Original post by anarchism101
Many mutualists will be happy to tell you that markets, and especially 'free markets' are not the same as capitalism. Capitalism is the only system where wage labour is widespread (depending on your point of view, you could say it's the only system where wage labour exists at all). However a market economy is not unique to capitalism.

A free-market economy isn't 'unique to' capitalism, a free-market economy is capitalism. Hence why a mutualist society can exist within a capitalist society, whereas capitalism cannot exist inside a mutualist society.

Original post by anarchism101
Original post by Darkademic
How a business operates internally has nothing to do with whether an economy is centrally planned.

I didn't say it did, I said capitalist businesses internally operate on the basis of top-down central planning.

Yes you did:

"In fact an argument could be made that central planning is closer to capitalism, as central planning takes place within capitalist firms."

Original post by anarchism101
You're treating a business as a unit, as something that has one central thought, rather than being made up of individuals. Suppose you substitute the word 'businesses' for 'states'? Somehow I think you won't agree with that then.

How am I treating businesses as having a one central thought, and how does that even relate to my point?

The internal structure of businesses has no bearing on whether an economy is centrally planned or not.
Original post by prog2djent
Great well done, you took an extract of my post and missed out what I said after it.


I was only replying to one of your points. Some I agreed with and some I didn't have an opinion either way, but I was only responding to one.

For a start, the American Old west was a bastion of free market capitalism


Not at all, in fact it was the rise of capitalism that killed the Old West. The Old West didn't really have a market economy, never mind 'free market capitalism' (which has never existed anywhere), labour was not separated from ownership - farmers/producers owned their own means of production and so received the full product of their labour. No wage labour.

Speaking of failure, as it the list. Yeah, well, it all goes hand in hand with massive death.


So you're saying that when a stateless society or anti-state rebellion is violently and brutally crushed by the state, the violence is actually the fault of the stateless society or rebels? Yeah, great logic there.

And thanks, that really hammers it home, "ever tribal and pre-state society", great, cos' that's just what we want to go back to. Are you and anarcho-primitivist, those freaks are the worst of all.


Great strawman there.

Are you surprised that most stateless societies came before state societies rather than between?

They weren't even all that primitive. Mesopotamia, for example, developed what were very sophisticated societies for their time, without states.

The trouble with social anarchists in the 21st century, in the west, is that they are like "hurr durr screw the state herpy derpy screw the free market durka derrr!" and they depend so much on the system, they have benefited so much from it. My music tech at college basically defines himself as a libertarian socialist and said that he only thinks like that idealistically but in the real world would not want to live like that, would not want to enforce
anyone to live like that,


Wait a go, using personal prejudices and anecdotes, as arguments.......
I'm prepared to bet that you 'depend on the system' just as much as any libsoc does.
Have you ever used the NHS?
Did you ever have state education?
Do you use state-built roads?
Do you use the internet that was developed by US military technicians? Or in the same vein as that, chances are the computer you're using partially was too.
You get the idea.

Original post by prog2djent
Your are essentially just the same as authoritarian leftists, you want to enforce your system on everyone else yet 99% of the population would never want to live in that system, you will turn our achievements so far back, ever time I think of anarchists I think of squaler, poverty, death.

You would rather everyone were poor so long as there were no rich or middle classes.


Translation


I'm just going to rant for a few lines, make a few assertions that aren't backed up by anything, talk about 'your system' without actually knowing what that is, assume I speak for 99% of the population, and then some other rubbish.


As I've said before, though I am not one, Anarcho-capitalism is the closest thing to capitalism that can be achieved.


It can't be achieved. It would fall apart in about a hundred different ways. Nor do I see any reason why we would want to be achieved.

As for the Paul video, classic fallacy I've heard a thousand times. Capitalism needs to be enforced on people because people aren't naturally going to agree to rent their bodies out and give up part of what they produce for nothing unless something is forcing them.
Original post by anarchism101
Ah, the classic 'money from barter' myth. The problem with this theory? There isn't a shred of evidence to support it. In fact all the evidence suggests it didn't take place. The only place in history where barter economies exist is in societies that were already used to using money where suddenly the money became unavailable or unreliable (like 1990s Russia).


The reason why there is no particular evidence of the emergence of money is because money was used before anything was even documented. Money was invented long before the printing press.




Nothing in particular, probably. People wouldn't be stopped from using money, whether it's credit or cash.


So what if this capitalist system started to outperform the libertarian socialist system? What if everything that was really valuable was produced more efficiently by the capitalists? Are you going to let your society be outcompeted by the raw productive captacity of the price mechanism.


From a perspective of a business as a unit, yes, a form of 'purist' capitalism would be bottom-up, but businesses are not the bottom. Internally, capitalist businesses operate on a top-down basis.


Not entirely true. I have a job and I am probably right at the bottom of my company but I still make contributions and change the business model in some way. Sure the directors decide marketing strategies and decide when products are launched, but they do not nanny every single department. To do that would destroy the company.

Infact when I think about it I have quite a lot of autonomy. As long as I get the job done nobody higher up really cares.



Capitalism is characterised by wage-labour, the separation of labour from ownership (basically what is meant by 'private property in the means of production'). That there has to be more employees than employers is simple mathematics.


Who employs the employers? I can tell you. It is the consumer. It is the common man. It is silly to look at a frim and assume the the employers are the commanders of the economy. In reality it is the consumers. Without consumers buying what the capitalists have to offer then there would be no firm.


As I said above, maybe at an individual business level (and only under some form of 'purist' capitalism would this even take place), but internally capitalist businesses operate on top-down planning.


In many cases that is not true. One of the limiting factors on the size of companies is the problem of top down planning. It only works to a very small extent. Once a firm gets so large it starts to go into diseconomies of scale. The firm becomes so large that the resources start to get malcoordinated. This holds the size of firms down so that they do not over do top down planning because doing so would make the business less profitable. Indefinitely increasing the size of a firm will eventually make the firm unprofitable. A capitalist system automatically keeps the amount of neccessary top down planning in firms to an equilibrium level.
Original post by Darkademic
You can't be deprived of something you never had to begin with. It's not capitalism you're arguing against, it's reality; the mere fact that resources are finite and that individual experiences are mutually exclusive.


http://mutualist.org/id4.html

It is indeed true that it has been the state which has separated labour from ownership and the vast majority of people from a means of production.


What do you mean by 'the separation of labour from ownership'?


Well, two things that are fundamentally linked. Firstly, where a producer does not receive the full product of his labour, i.e. wage labour.
Secondly, where the means of production a worker produces with is owned by someone else.
But the two are fundamentally the same problem.


A free-market economy isn't 'unique to' capitalism, a free-market economy is capitalism.


Again, mutualists will disagree, and since a 'free market economy' only exists theories and imagination, it's just going back and forth.

Yes you did:

"In fact an argument could be made that central planning is closer to capitalism, as central planning takes place within capitalist firms."


So point out the part where I was talking about a whole economy. Or even where I said it mattered what it was at all that was being centrally planned. It's the fact that it's happening that I object to.


How am I treating businesses as having a one central thought, and how does that even relate to my point?


You said:
'How businesses choose to organise themeselves is their concern, and no-one elses.'

You're willing to accept that states are top-down, but not businesses. You accept states as authoritarian, but businesses should be 'left alone' as if they're people.

The internal structure of businesses has no bearing on whether an economy is centrally planned or not.


Whether it's an economy or a business doesn't matter - central planning is central planning.
Original post by anarchism101
I was only replying to one of your points. Some I agreed with and some I didn't have an opinion either way, but I was only responding to one.



Not at all, in fact it was the rise of capitalism that killed the Old West. The Old West didn't really have a market economy, never mind 'free market capitalism' (which has never existed anywhere), labour was not separated from ownership - farmers/producers owned their own means of production and so received the full product of their labour. No wage labour.



So you're saying that when a stateless society or anti-state rebellion is violently and brutally crushed by the state, the violence is actually the fault of the stateless society or rebels? Yeah, great logic there.



Great strawman there.

Are you surprised that most stateless societies came before state societies rather than between?

They weren't even all that primitive. Mesopotamia, for example, developed what were very sophisticated societies for their time, without states.



Wait a go, using personal prejudices and anecdotes, as arguments.......
I'm prepared to bet that you 'depend on the system' just as much as any libsoc does.
Have you ever used the NHS?
Did you ever have state education?
Do you use state-built roads?
Do you use the internet that was developed by US military technicians? Or in the same vein as that, chances are the computer you're using partially was too.
You get the idea.







It can't be achieved. It would fall apart in about a hundred different ways. Nor do I see any reason why we would want to be achieved.

As for the Paul video, classic fallacy I've heard a thousand times. Capitalism needs to be enforced on people because people aren't naturally going to agree to rent their bodies out and give up part of what they produce for nothing unless something is forcing them.


Since the old west was "built around the profit motive", as the wiki media entry I have open on another tab rightly says.

http://mises.org/journals/jls/3_1/3_1_2.pdf The government destroyed this society

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Old_West

Stop trying to turn something that is an example of old world capitalism working, the state fooked that over.

Sicne I ad hom'd you its fair that you returned the favour haha. (even though I did in a general way)

I have used to NHS, our family has had great expiriences with them. Between 12-14 years old every few months I would get chronic pains around my stomoach, went to a private clinic, they said it was a'grimbling appendix' but It is common for my age group, come back again if it gets worse and we'll see what we can do. Anyway around 14 years later that clinic had moved so we went to the NHS, 3 doctor's coulnd't figure it out, nor communicate (sorry to add stereotypes). So they just gave me drugs to calm it down until a few months later my apendix was 2 hours from bursting and through another private clinic, they TOLD the NHS doctors to opperate or It would burst.

My grandma had a stroke and contracted MRSA at the hospital and died, my grandad died of neglect since the nurses couldn't be bothered tending to him when he needed, i think its called "Protelizium" which is basically the stuff they pump into you. My dad had a hurnia, and was on the waiting list for 8 ****ing months and was in pain the whole time, it would have cost £3000 through bupa (since their is no compeition it is so expensive).

So my expiriences aren't good.

I have used state education, as do most people since they can't afford private and thank to labour the grammar school I got into after the 11+ test was closed :angry:. Pretty much everything I know is due to my own research, GCSE's and A levels are an excersise in teaching you how to answer exams so that schools can meet targets and squander away more funding to building a useless sports hall which has nothing to do with academia.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zDZFcDGpL4U

As i said, most of the things I know about economics, business studies and music (my geography knowledge is purely down to education, and it is useless and has no application to the real world, it.is.for.answering.and.exam), real intelligence is not applying what you have been told into 10 marks, that's just being a parrot.

Don't get me started on the quality of the roads round here. We are united in HATE against the council and their overly-powerful union thugs who don't want to work, grit, repair or maintain. Ironically, going to america, the private roads in Santa Ana are an absolute dream and the state roads are the crumbling ones, my Dad's collegue's strett all got together pooled some money and paid for private contractors to sort out their road hahahahaha, and it was so expensive because the state subsidises other contractors and has a monopoly over 90% of the road network, no compeition = price high, state - no innovation due to lack of profit motive, no competition keeping you on your toes etc etc

Well, I built this computer myself with components from South Korea, I'm sure the state has something to with something somewhere I don't know about or notice. So I'll give them credit there. Also, isn't it the government that is trying to reduce the freedom of the net aswell. Huh?

If you are a mutualist, with whom I get along with very well, then I hope you understand capitalism and the free market are seperate, and its the state that has corrupted capitalism?
Original post by Classical Liberal
The reason why there is no particular evidence of the emergence of money is because money was used before anything was even documented. Money was invented long before the printing press.


Really? Evidence of the first transactions and economies predate any evidence that physical cash was ever used in them by thousands of years.

The video you posted is another classic reiteration of the same fallacy. It gets it wrong in the first 30 seconds when it says 'people started to swap these items'. There is no evidence that 'barter economies' ever occurred, apart from in places where money had already been invented, but where the money was suddenly removed (like 1990s Russia), they're if anything a recent phenomenon.

Under the 'barter' theory, all non-money economies ought to be barter economies. There are plenty of documented societies without money. The number found using barter is 0. They're either gift economies or work on some sort of credit/debt economy.

http://www.nakedcapitalism.com/2011/09/david-graeber-on-the-invention-of-money-%E2%80%93-notes-on-sex-adventure-monomaniacal-sociopathy-and-the-true-function-of-economics.html


So what if this capitalist system started to outperform the libertarian socialist system? What if everything that was really valuable was produced more efficiently by the capitalists? Are you going to let your society be outcompeted by the raw productive captacity of the price mechanism.


Wait, so you've gone from money existing to capitalism existing? How do you work that out?

Not entirely true. I have a job and I am probably right at the bottom of my company but I still make contributions and change the business model in some way. Sure the directors decide marketing strategies and decide when products are launched, but they do not nanny every single department. To do that would destroy the company.

Infact when I think about it I have quite a lot of autonomy. As long as I get the job done nobody higher up really cares.


Doesn't change the top-down principle. Power and authority, can be devolved, yes, but it still ultimately resides at the top. In the same way that states can be very centralised, or quite decentralised. They can be very intrusive, or not that intrusive. They're still top down though.

Who employs the employers? I can tell you. It is the consumer. It is the common man. It is silly to look at a frim and assume the the employers are the commanders of the economy. In reality it is the consumers. Without consumers buying what the capitalists have to offer then there would be no firm.


You've fallen onto repeating a mantra that you've heard rather than addressing the argument now. You indicate it yourself in the last sentence of this paragraph. We're not discussing cases where there isn't a firm by definition. We're only interested in firms that do exist. I never said employers were masters of the economy, but they are masters of the business they own.

In many cases that is not true. One of the limiting factors on the size of companies is the problem of top down planning. It only works to a very small extent. Once a firm gets so large it starts to go into diseconomies of scale. The firm becomes so large that the resources start to get malcoordinated. This holds the size of firms down so that they do not over do top down planning because doing so would make the business less profitable. Indefinitely increasing the size of a firm will eventually make the firm unprofitable. A capitalist system automatically keeps the amount of neccessary top down planning in firms to an equilibrium level.


Which is why mutualists argue that capitalism would disappear if it were ever subjected to a free market. But from my point of view, a free market only exists in the imagination so it's a fruitless debate anyway.
Original post by prog2djent
The government destroyed this society


Yep, and the government created capitalism.

http://mutualist.org/id4.html

OK, so I think we can put personal anecdotes out of the way now?:smile:

If you are a mutualist, with whom I get along with very well, then I hope you understand capitalism and the free market are seperate, and its the state that has corrupted capitalism?


I'm not a mutualist, no. Not for reasons of morality or principle, but just because I don't think mutualism or 'free markets' could or will ever exist. I'd be fine with mutualism if it could exist.
Original post by anarchism101
Really? Evidence of the first transactions and economies predate any evidence that physical cash was ever used in them by thousands of years.

The video you posted is another classic reiteration of the same fallacy. It gets it wrong in the first 30 seconds when it says 'people started to swap these items'. There is no evidence that 'barter economies' ever occurred, apart from in places where money had already been invented, but where the money was suddenly removed (like 1990s Russia), they're if anything a recent phenomenon.


So you are saying trade, barter, did not exist. Get real. It is just ridiculous to suppose that people did not trade before even money came into conception.



Money is the logical product of purposeful human action.

Under the 'barter' theory, all non-money economies ought to be barter economies. There are plenty of documented societies without money. The number found using barter is 0. They're either gift economies or work on some sort of credit/debt economy.

http://www.nakedcapitalism.com/2011/09/david-graeber-on-the-invention-of-money-%E2%80%93-notes-on-sex-adventure-monomaniacal-sociopathy-and-the-true-function-of-economics.html


All of your ideas assume an insulated society of where people know everyone. In this system money is not strictly neccessary and unannounced debts can be used instead. If somebody was to give somebody something and then reciever of the gift never repay their debt the local community would likely banish him. This notion of not needing money works in a very small society where everybody knows everybody else. That is why, in part, you cannot find these small societies of savages using money.

The gift debt system completely falls apart once you start to trade with people whom you do not know or will never meet again. Now there is no sort of 'social' contract enforced implicitly by the community. Now the only reasonable system is a money system, something like gold (that has been used) or salt (like the Romans used). It is pretty luagable to think the Roman empire could have worked without some form of money.

This leads nicely onto a topic Hayek explained very well



Without a price mechanism we simply cannot coordinate resources with people for whom we do not know.

And this nicely ties me back to recording text.



Without prices and money we would not even have pencils.


Wait, so you've gone from money existing to capitalism existing? How do you work that out?


A system of free trade and a media of exchange is practically all the way to some form of capitalism. All you need to finish the job is to institute some kind of notion of officially defined private property and you are done.



Doesn't change the top-down principle. Power and authority, can be devolved, yes, but it still ultimately resides at the top. In the same way that states can be very centralised, or quite decentralised. They can be very intrusive, or not that intrusive. They're still top down though.


Sorry could you define what you mean by top down and bottom up.


You've fallen onto repeating a mantra that you've heard rather than addressing the argument now. You indicate it yourself in the last sentence of this paragraph. We're not discussing cases where there isn't a firm by definition. We're only interested in firms that do exist. I never said employers were masters of the economy, but they are masters of the business they own.


No they are not. Ultimately they are servants to the consumer. If the business man cannot serve the consumer he will not make enough money to overcome his operating costs and will in time go bankrupt.


Which is why mutualists argue that capitalism would disappear if it were ever subjected to a free market. But from my point of view, a free market only exists in the imagination so it's a fruitless debate anyway.


Mutualists as far as I am concerned are really capitalists in disguise. They just do not want to think of themselves as capitalists or portray themselves as capitalists. Free association for mutual gain sounds an awful lot like capitalism.
Original post by Classical Liberal
So you are saying trade, barter, did not exist. Get real. It is just ridiculous to suppose that people did not trade before even money came into conception.


So, do you have any actual evidence to support this claim, or are you just going to assume you're right? As I've said, plenty of societies have been found not using money through history. Not one of these has been found to use barter, when according to the theory you propound they should all be barter economies. When the Cambridge anthropology department researched this, their conclusion was that there was no evidence of any economy based primarily on barter, and that all their available evidence suggested there had never been such a thing.

So, yes, I am saying barter did not exist. Do you have anything demonstrating that it did, or do you intend to just post more videos with no evidence?

Trade is slightly different. Spot trade was never the basis for any economy, but travelling traders did exist who engaged in spot trades. But there was no need for money in this situation - in fact money would have been a handicap.

Consider the situation if you are a travelling trader. Travelling, especially with goods, is risky. You're not going to go somewhere on the off chance that they might have what you want and might want what you have. You're going to go somewhere with people you know will want wool and will trade you iron for it. There's no need for money, this is quite an easy trade to have fixed equivalents with. Money would actually be a handicap because it makes you more of a target for thieves. What are nomadic robber bands going to want wool or iron for? But stealing money that they can trade for anything would be a much more attractive proposition to them.


All of your ideas assume an insulated society of where people know everyone.


Which is how pretty much all early societies (the same society you're claiming your theory of the origins of money occurred) were.

The gift debt system completely falls apart once you start to trade with people whom you do not know or will never meet again.


Which, until recently, very few people actually did. Those few who were involved in international trade would find using physical money for these trades a handicap.

Village societies were usually gift economies.
Towns and cities were usually credit economies.

Graeber discusses everything I've said in the article I linked, though in more detail of course.

Now there is no sort of 'social' contract enforced implicitly by the community. Now the only reasonable system is a money system, something like gold (that has been used) or salt (like the Romans used). It is pretty luagable to think the Roman empire could have worked without some form of money.


Whether things would be different in a society like today's is a different question, but as the state makes sure we do have money, we can't know. But we're currently increasingly moving back to credit money, so I think there's a good chance it will be fine.

It's interesting you mention Rome, because this is where physical money first seems to originate; when city-states start to become empires. This resolves another problem with the barter money theory. Virtually everywhere the gold and silver mines were owned by the kings or religious authorities (sometimes the same thing). How had they been ruling for centuries, and never had the idea to make coins, which would make taking from their population so much easier (as they'd be able to tax)? If everyone had been using gold, they should have been able to.

In actuality, it's all about war. A city state generally can rely on people to volunteer as soldiers and people to provide weapons, armour, etc for the troops because it's their own homes that are under threat, the motivation to help the war effort is already there. But when city-states become empires, you now need a way of motivating people to join the army, of having a professional army that you can supply on a constant basis (rather than just when you're attacked). This was done by paying them in gold coins, and then insisting that the population pay a tax only payable in those gold. Plus now the soldiers can spend their plunder from campaigns. Eventually this expanded into other public officials like judges, magistrates, secretaries, etc. After Rome collapsed, Europe largely reverted to credit economies (and we know this because they were keeping accounts in coins that were almost totally out of circulation and they would probably never have actually seen, let alone had).

This leads nicely onto a topic Hayek explained very well



In which he says 'socialism assumes that all available knowledge can be used by one central authority'

Socialism assumes no such thing. It's a strawman argument.


All you need to finish the job is to institute some kind of notion of officially defined private property and you are done.


Which is quite a significant step. Unless you plan to do it the way it's always been done, which is use the state to force in on people. Which kind of violates the 'free trade' part

Sorry could you define what you mean by top down and bottom up.


Not really, I would think it was self-explanatory. But I'll give it a go.

If it is top-down, ultimate authority is held by whoever is at the top of the pyramid, at the centre. Any decentralisation of that authority only occurs because this central authority has chosen to delegate some authority, and they can withdraw that delegation of power if they wish.

If it's bottom up, ultimate authority is held by the constituent parts, or members, of the institution in question. Any centralisation that occurs only does so because the members choose to delegate that power, and can withdraw that delegation if they wish.


No they are not. Ultimately they are servants to the consumer. If the business man cannot serve the consumer he will not make enough money to overcome his operating costs and will in time go bankrupt.


You're not answering the argument again. Even if it provides what the consumer wants, a centrally planned top-down business is still a centrally planned top-down business.


Mutualists as far as I am concerned are really capitalists in disguise. They just do not want to think of themselves as capitalists or portray themselves as capitalists.


Mutualists are pretty clear that they are anti-capitalists. You only have to look at the most famous mutualist, Proudhon, to see that.

Free association for mutual gain sounds an awful lot like capitalism.


I'd say it's socialism, but this is just playing with words.
Original post by anarchism101
So, do you have any actual evidence to support this claim, or are you just going to assume you're right? As I've said, plenty of societies have been found not using money through history. Not one of these has been found to use barter, when according to the theory you propound they should all be barter economies. When the Cambridge anthropology department researched this, their conclusion was that there was no evidence of any economy based primarily on barter, and that all their available evidence suggested there had never been such a thing.


It does not matter what an anthropology department researched. They cannot have covered all of human history. All they could have done is look at some particular cases. Which is not scientific. The research is not proper science.

Infact studying questions of this nature are inherently unempirical. The answers can be derived out through logic. And one can derive out a media of exchange through the basic pressumption that men act with purpose. Which is what Human Action is all about.

So, yes, I am saying barter did not exist. Do you have anything demonstrating that it did, or do you intend to just post more videos with no evidence?


I did it yesterday. Traded some chips for a bit of steak.

Trade is slightly different. Spot trade was never the basis for any economy, but travelling traders did exist who engaged in spot trades. But there was no need for money in this situation - in fact money would have been a handicap.

Consider the situation if you are a travelling trader. Travelling, especially with goods, is risky. You're not going to go somewhere on the off chance that they might have what you want and might want what you have. You're going to go somewhere with people you know will want wool and will trade you iron for it. There's no need for money, this is quite an easy trade to have fixed equivalents with. Money would actually be a handicap because it makes you more of a target for thieves. What are nomadic robber bands going to want wool or iron for? But stealing money that they can trade for anything would be a much more attractive proposition to them.


This is very good point. This is why checks were developed as a form of money. Rather than lugging around gold people could just write on checks how much was owed and a bank would do the rest. From this developed the notion of credit as we know it today. A promise to pay on a piece of paper is the basis for our entire monetary system.

It is a very interesting story as to how this system developed but makes a good deal of sense.



Which is how pretty much all early societies (the same society you're claiming your theory of the origins of money occurred) were.


I am going to assume that the research done by this Anthropology department studied insulated societies where everyone knew each other. Money could still exist in this society but does not really have to be used if people prefer something else. Although the implicit debt system is the actual money. Just because you do not see cash changing hands immediately does not mean there was no trade.


Which, until recently, very few people actually did. Those few who were involved in international trade would find using physical money for these trades a handicap.


Brilliant. Lets go back to hunter gather societies where we spend all our time trying to get enough food to live till next week. Which is what a Libertarian socialist society would turn into.




Whether things would be different in a society like today's is a different question, but as the state makes sure we do have money, we can't know. But we're currently increasingly moving back to credit money, so I think there's a good chance it will be fine.

It's interesting you mention Rome, because this is where physical money first seems to originate; when city-states start to become empires. This resolves another problem with the barter money theory. Virtually everywhere the gold and silver mines were owned by the kings or religious authorities (sometimes the same thing). How had they been ruling for centuries, and never had the idea to make coins, which would make taking from their population so much easier (as they'd be able to tax)? If everyone had been using gold, they should have been able to.

In actuality, it's all about war. A city state generally can rely on people to volunteer as soldiers and people to provide weapons, armour, etc for the troops because it's their own homes that are under threat, the motivation to help the war effort is already there. But when city-states become empires, you now need a way of motivating people to join the army, of having a professional army that you can supply on a constant basis (rather than just when you're attacked). This was done by paying them in gold coins, and then insisting that the population pay a tax only payable in those gold. Plus now the soldiers can spend their plunder from campaigns. Eventually this expanded into other public officials like judges, magistrates, secretaries, etc. After Rome collapsed, Europe largely reverted to credit economies (and we know this because they were keeping accounts in coins that were almost totally out of circulation and they would probably never have actually seen, let alone had).


Precisely. Once an economy starts to use resources from people it does not know money has to be used to coordinate resources. When you are protecting your own family, friends and under the command of somebody you know payment is not neccessary. It is once you start working for people whom you do not know that money becomes necessary. Which is essentially Friedman's and Hayek's argument.



In which he says 'socialism assumes that all available knowledge can be used by one central authority'

Socialism assumes no such thing. It's a strawman argument.


When he refers to socialism what he means is the planned economy. An econoy that does not use prices to guide resources. That is what it used to mean. People with any sense now recognise the ridiculousnous of that notion and thus in modern times socialist means something else most of the time.

Although the Libertarian socialist economy is still destroyed by this argument. Underlying the Liberatarians socialist is the centrally planned economy but planned democratically or by the people. Rather than by some elites or a dictator.



Which is quite a significant step. Unless you plan to do it the way it's always been done, which is use the state to force in on people. Which kind of violates the 'free trade' part


Government institute private property because it already existed. If I go out and kill a buffallo and then cook it people instinctively know that the product is mine. The role of the law is to protect what people already know is right through the use of force as defence against thieves.


Not really, I would think it was self-explanatory. But I'll give it a go.

If it is top-down, ultimate authority is held by whoever is at the top of the pyramid, at the centre. Any decentralisation of that authority only occurs because this central authority has chosen to delegate some authority, and they can withdraw that delegation of power if they wish.

If it's bottom up, ultimate authority is held by the constituent parts, or members, of the institution in question. Any centralisation that occurs only does so because the members choose to delegate that power, and can withdraw that delegation if they wish.


Ahhh see those defintions are actually quite important and mean we are talking through each other.

For example. Suppose you had a system where everybody voted on what to produce. All those votes would be summed up and the things with the greatest majority would be produced. I would consider this system to be centrally planned. Because, although there are many constituents, the result is determined at the centre taking authority from all the voters. You on the other hand thing it is bottom up because everybody got a say.

A centrally planned economy is still centrally planned even if it is done democratically.



I'd say it's socialism, but this is just playing with words.


Defintions are important. Otherwise you just start talking through each other and manufacture disagreements out of nothing.
Original post by Classical Liberal
It does not matter what an anthropology department researched. They cannot have covered all of human history. All they could have done is look at some particular cases. Which is not scientific. The research is not proper science.

Infact studying questions of this nature are inherently unempirical. The answers can be derived out through logic. And one can derive out a media of exchange through the basic pressumption that men act with purpose. Which is what Human Action is all about.


They researched a hell of a lot of human history though. And as I've said, all available evidence suggested that there was never any 'land of barter' and there is certainly no evidence to suggest they ever did.

Your second paragraph basically amounts to you saying you want to fly in the face of all fact and evidence because 'logic' says otherwise. There's nothing logical about coming to a wrong conclusion.

The problem with the 'barter theory' is that it assumes people would have gone 'I'll give you 20 eggs for that chicken' to people who were their neighbours and friends who they saw often. This would just be pointless and inefficient, and money doesn't make it that much less so - if I know I owe someone and he knows I owe him, why does he need to keep a piece of gold to demonstrate that?

I did it yesterday. Traded some chips for a bit of steak.


1. And unless I'm very much mistaken, money has already been invented in the society you live in. No process you are involved in can invent money, it already exists.

2. So is this your regular mode of economic transaction? If it isn't, it's not the basis of anything except itself.


This is very good point. This is why checks were developed as a form of money. Rather than lugging around gold people could just write on checks how much was owed and a bank would do the rest. From this developed the notion of credit as we know it today. A promise to pay on a piece of paper is the basis for our entire monetary system.

It is a very interesting story as to how this system developed but makes a good deal of sense.


True, but often the reason people used credit was because they didn't have cash. For example, during Charlemagne's rule, he came up with the system of pounds, shillings and pennies. But he minted very few shillings and pennies, and never minted a pound at all. But people still kept accounts in terms of pounds, despite there not actually being any. It's a similar story in Ireland, before the English invaded, where the unit of account was the cumal, which is literally a slave-girl. This was still the unit of account long after slavery had been abolished in Ireland. Even when slavery did exist, there were very few and they were almost never actually transferred.


Brilliant. Lets go back to hunter gather societies where we spend all our time trying to get enough food to live till next week. Which is what a Libertarian socialist society would turn into.


Way to strawman and take out of context. Point out exactly where I said that I wanted to go back to early societies.

The point was that these early societies where you yourself admit there was no need for money are exactly the societies you are claiming money originated in.


Precisely. Once an economy starts to use resources from people it does not know money has to be used to coordinate resources. When you are protecting your own family, friends and under the command of somebody you know payment is not neccessary. It is once you start working for people whom you do not know that money becomes necessary. Which is essentially Friedman's and Hayek's argument.


And money considerably predates these kind of economies.

When he refers to socialism what he means is the planned economy. An econoy that does not use prices to guide resources. That is what it used to mean. People with any sense now recognise the ridiculousnous of that notion and thus in modern times socialist means something else most of the time.


Not true. Socialism is worker control of the means of production, that's what it's always been. The first socialist philosophers of the industrial era were all mostly interested in co-operatives. Until the late 19th/early 20th century schools of socialism never veered too far from this principle (Bakunin, for example, basically had the idea that co-ops would join together to form 'collectives' but fundamentally they work on the same principles). The idea that you could have 'state socialism' wasn't really popularised (if that's the right word, which I'm not sure it is) until Lenin came onto the scene, and there were pretty much always libertarian socialists criticising it.

Although the Libertarian socialist economy is still destroyed by this argument. Underlying the Liberatarians socialist is the centrally planned economy but planned democratically or by the people. Rather than by some elites or a dictator.


The only school of LibSoc I know of that wants any sort of planned economy is Parecon. Most types of LibSoc don't want central planning.


Government institute private property because it already existed. If I go out and kill a buffallo and then cook it people instinctively know that the product is mine. The role of the law is to protect what people already know is right through the use of force as defence against thieves.


And that's generally not what socialists mean when they say private property.
http://dbzer0.com/blog/private-property-vs-possession


For example. Suppose you had a system where everybody voted on what to produce. All those votes would be summed up and the things with the greatest majority would be produced. I would consider this system to be centrally planned. Because, although there are many constituents, the result is determined at the centre taking authority from all the voters. You on the other hand thing it is bottom up because everybody got a say.

A centrally planned economy is still centrally planned even if it is done democratically.


What you're describing is Parecon, which is not what I advocate, and even Parecon-ists would say they favour consensus rather than simply majority decision making. But I'm not going to stop any communities based on Parecon from existing, it's fine if it works.
(edited 12 years ago)
Original post by anarchism101
They researched a hell of a lot of human history though. And as I've said, all available evidence suggested that there was never any 'land of barter' and there is certainly no evidence to suggest they ever did.

Your second paragraph basically amounts to you saying you want to fly in the face of all fact and evidence because 'logic' says otherwise. There's nothing logical about coming to a wrong conclusion.


Your evidence is useless.

Facts are meaningless. You could use facts to prove anything that's even remotely true!
--Homer Simpson

There is an amazing amount of truth to that joke.

The problem with the 'barter theory' is that it assumes people would have gone 'I'll give you 20 eggs for that chicken' to people who were their neighbours and friends who they saw often. This would just be pointless and inefficient, and money doesn't make it that much less so - if I know I owe someone and he knows I owe him, why does he need to keep a piece of gold to demonstrate that?


Precisely. A society where everybody knows each other. Compared to an economy where we trade with people we do not know. My clothes were made by people I never met yet I traded with them using money.

This is just such an important distinction you do not seem capable or willing to accept. I think it is the later because you seem pretty smart.


1. And unless I'm very much mistaken, money has already been invented in the society you live in. No process you are involved in can invent money, it already exists.


I could create my own money. It might not be very good though. Money is at its heart an idea not an intrinsic thing. It is a human construct.

2. So is this your regular mode of economic transaction? If it isn't, it's not the basis of anything except itself.


I bet it has happened to you.



True, but often the reason people used credit was because they didn't have cash. For example, during Charlemagne's rule, he came up with the system of pounds, shillings and pennies. But he mvery did exist, there were very few and they were almost never actually transfeinted very few shillings and pennies, and never minted a pound at all. But people still kept accounts in terms of pounds, despite there not actually being any. It's a similar story in Ireland, before the English invaded, where the unit of account was the cumal, which is literally a slave-girl. This was still the unit of account long after slavery had been abolished in Ireland. Even when slarred.


Are you describing fractional reserve banking?

Way to strawman and take out of context. Point out exactly where I said that I wanted to go back to early societies.


Well obviously you do not want to go back to such a state but I am pretty convinced that if we did as you libertarian socialists propose we would go back to such a state. Which would hopefully quickly corrected with a bit of good ole' capitalism, assuming you do not institute a coercive government which your society probably would.


And money considerably predates these kind of economies.


Where does money come from?


Not true. Socialism is worker control of the means of production, that's what it's always been. The first socialist philosophers of the industrial era were all mostly interested in co-operatives. Until the late 19th/early 20th century schools of socialism never veered too far from this principle (Bakunin, for example, basically had the idea that co-ops would join together to form 'collectives' but fundamentally they work on the same principles). The idea that you could have 'state socialism' wasn't really popularised (if that's the right word, which I'm not sure it is) until Lenin came onto the scene, and there were pretty much always libertarian socialists criticising it.


I think the notion of state socialism came about when people actually tried to implement the ideas of Marx and other socialist thinkers. State control is the only way to in practice enforce socialist ideas on a large scale.
Original post by Classical Liberal
Your evidence is useless.


And you claim this based on what exactly?

If you want to have a theory of money that is contradicted by 100% of the thousands of observed cases and supported by 0%, fine, but it's about as valid as a theory that money was introduced by aliens. We can't disprove that either, but there's nothing supporting it and plenty contradicting it.

Precisely. A society where everybody knows each other. Compared to an economy where we trade with people we do not know. My clothes were made by people I never met yet I traded with them using money.


And these societies where everyone knew each other are the same ones you're claiming money was invented in. Based on your logic here, money wouldn't have been used in normal everyday transactions until the last century or two, but I'm sure you'll say this wasn't the case.

I could create my own money. It might not be very good though. Money is at its heart an idea not an intrinsic thing. It is a human construct.


That's not the point. Any 'barter' you happen to engage in cannot invent money, because money has already been invented in the society you live in.


I bet it has happened to you.


You're not answering my question. It's not any regular form of transaction, is it?

Are you describing fractional reserve banking?


No, not at all.


Well obviously you do not want to go back to such a state but I am pretty convinced that if we did as you libertarian socialists propose we would go back to such a state. Which would hopefully quickly corrected with a bit of good ole' capitalism, assuming you do not institute a coercive government which your society probably would.


OK, just make a load of unsupported asserted statements and treat that like an argument, when you know full well it's not and is really just an attempt at a cheap jab.



Where does money come from?


I've covered this already. There's no universal story, but a very common one is that it's introduced by states to fund professional armies when city-states become empires.



I think the notion of state socialism came about when people actually tried to implement the ideas of Marx and other socialist thinkers. State control is the only way to in practice enforce socialist ideas on a large scale.


So what exactly were 'the ideas of Marx'? Because a lot of people say this without ever explaining the phrase. Marx, for the most part, didn't have any ideas (at least, not that he wrote down) concerning what socialism or communism would look like, or any more than a very vague idea about how they would be achieved. His ideas were mostly in analysis of economics, philosophy and history. One of the themes that does come across in Marx's work, however, is that he was fundamentally opposed to the state. He even rejected the idea of a 'workers'state' that Leninists advocate.

But among LibSocs, Marx is a divisive figure anyway, so I'll move on.

Look at socialist works before the Russian Revolution. You won't find anything advocating that the state manage the economy, or indeed much about the economy at all. There'll be basic principles of what they think the economy will be like (i.e. Proudhon with co-operatives and federations, Kropotkin with communes), but that's it. The economy is considered to be something that should be left to the workers of the workplace in question and what they do is up to them.

State control is the only way to in practice enforce socialist ideas on a large scale.


So, despite practically all examples of society being socialist ones, and pretty much all anti-state uprisings demonstrating socialist principles, and capitalism having to be created by the state and only ever having existed in a state society, you're saying it's socialism that needs a state?!:confused:

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