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Original post by user6
I do not understand this binomial sum thing for (a+b)^n. Surely (a+b)^n=a^n+b^n why is there a need for all this confusing binomial:confused:?


(a+b)^n=a^n+b^n is not true in general
e.g. a=1, b=1, n=2 (1+1)^2=2^2=4 not equal to 1^2+1^2=1+1=2

The binomial allows you to expand out (a+b)^n correctly:smile:
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 2
Original post by tombayes
(a+b)^n=a^n+b^n is not true in general
e.g. a=1, b=1, n=2 (1+1)^2=2^2=4 not equal to 1^2+1^2=1+1=2

The binomial allows you to expand out (a+b)^n correctly:smile:


but your example is wrong

(a+b)^n=(1+1)^2=1^2+1^2=1+1=2

and a^n+b^n=1^2+1^2=2

they are the same I am right:biggrin:
Can someone who knows what they are doing please help?
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by user6
but your example is wrong

(a+b)^n=(1+1)^2=1^2+1^2=1+1=2

and a^n+b^n=1^2+1^2=2

they are the same I am right:biggrin:
Can someone who knows what they are doing please help?


You have assumed the result when calculating (1+1)^2. You cannot do this.:eek:
Original post by user6
but your example is wrong

(a+b)^n=(1+1)^2=1^2+1^2=1+1=2

and a^n+b^n=1^2+1^2=2

they are the same I am right:biggrin:
Can someone who knows what they are doing please help?


you used (a+b)^n=a^n+b^n when evaluating (a+b)^n so obviously you are going to get the same thing I could and prove anything doing that eg. orange=bananax x=1 orange=banana*1=banana bananax=banana*1=banana.(a+b)^n a=1 b=1 n=2 = (1+1)^2=2^2=4 not 2.
Original post by user6
but your example is wrong

(a+b)^n=(1+1)^2=1^2+1^2=1+1=2

and a^n+b^n=1^2+1^2=2

they are the same I am right:biggrin:
Can someone who knows what they are doing please help?


We know that 1+1=21+1=2, so (1+1)2=(2)2=4(12+12)(1+1)^2 = (2)^2 = 4 \neq (1^2+1^2).
Reply 6
Original post by tombayes
You have assumed the result when calculating (1+1)^2. You cannot do this.:eek:


Original post by Dalek1099
you used (a+b)^n=a^n+b^n when evaluating (a+b)^n so obviously you are going to get the same thing I could and prove anything doing that eg. orange=bananax x=1 orange=banana*1=banana bananax=banana*1=banana.(a+b)^n a=1 b=1 n=2 = (1+1)^2=2^2=4 not 2.


It is a mathematical formula though so true for all a,b and n.
Original post by user6
It is a mathematical formula though so true for all a,b and n.


Its not a mathematical formula, it is a common student mistake.
Reply 8
Original post by Dalek1099
Its not a mathematical formula, it is a common student mistake.


Sorry can someone else reply you have too much red gems
Original post by user6
It is a mathematical formula though so true for all a,b and n.


it is most certainly not!
Reply 10
Original post by tombayes
it is most certainly not!


no offense but your example was wrong so I am hesitant to believe you. Have you actually covered this in class yet?
Original post by user6
no offense but your example was wrong so I am hesitant to believe you. Have you actually covered this in class yet?


my example clearly disproves your 'mathematical formula'

However, I cannot be bothered to argue with you. Maybe someone else will help you sort out your life.
Reply 12
Original post by tombayes
my example clearly disproves your 'mathematical formula'

However, I cannot be bothered to argue with you. Maybe someone else will help you sort out your life.


:biggrin::biggrin:so I was right then.
It works for the base case, but consider n = 2

(a + b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2
this does not equal a^2 + b^2

hence binomial expansion must be used
Original post by user6
:biggrin::biggrin:so I was right then.


It is always difficult to decide if someone is a troll or has a genuine misunderstanding

I am going to assume that you have a genuine misunderstanding

I assume that you know that m2=m×mm^2 = m \times m

From there I assume that you know that (a+b)2=(a+b)(a+b)=a(a+b)+b(a+b)=a2+ab+ab+b2a2+b2(a+b)^2 = (a+b)(a+b) = a(a+b) + b(a+b) = a^2 + ab + ab + b^2 \not= a^2 + b^2




Also I assume that you know that 1+1 = 2 and that BIDMAS tells you do evaluate brackets before indices so that (1+1)2=22=4(1+1)^2 = 2^2 = 4




Both of these demonstrate that your belief that (a+b)2=a2+b2(a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 is incorrect
Original post by TenOfThem
It is always difficult to decide if someone is a troll or has a genuine misunderstanding

I am going to assume that you have a genuine misunderstanding

I assume that you know that m2=m×mm^2 = m \times m

From there I assume that you know that (a+b)2=(a+b)(a+b)=a(a+b)+b(a+b)=a2+ab+ab+b2a2+b2(a+b)^2 = (a+b)(a+b) = a(a+b) + b(a+b) = a^2 + ab + ab + b^2 \not= a^2 + b^2




Also I assume that you know that 1+1 = 2 and that BIDMAS tells you do evaluate brackets before indices so that (1+1)2=22=4(1+1)^2 = 2^2 = 4




Both of these demonstrate that your belief that (a+b)2=a2+b2(a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 is incorrect

Do you reckon they will understand proof by Maclaurin's series?(joke)
Reply 16
Original post by morgan8002
Do you reckon they will understand proof by Maclaurin's series?(joke)


Why are you making fun of me:mad:

I probably would understand whatever you are talking about - I got an A in GCSE Maths and so I am doing addition maths this year.
Reply 17
( a+b ) ^n. Surely ( a+b ) ^n=a^n+b^n


There you go, expanded them for you. Tip for next time: just press the space bar. Hope this helped x
Reply 18
Original post by tg0896
( a+b ) ^n. Surely ( a+b ) ^n=a^n+b^n


There you go, expanded them for you. Tip for next time: just press the space bar. Hope this helped x


hang on what?
Reply 19
Original post by user6
Why are you making fun of me:mad:

I probably would understand whatever you are talking about - I got an A in GCSE Maths and so I am doing addition maths this year.


Maclaurin I believe is taught only in Further Maths A2-Level, so chances are I doubt you could grasp it just by reading somebodies proof. Regardless, take the binomial expansion as gospel, and take proofs from the internet or us. Others have clearly stated that your perceived answer does not hold, and indeed for the base case, n=1, 424\neq2.

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