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Proof of recurrence relations by induction

Hi,
I have a question about proof of recurrence relations by induction. Is it fine to do them in a way that isn't in the mark scheme? For the ones where you have to prove it for n=1 and n=2 I do it for Uk=something and Uk-1=something. I then sub in n=k-1 into Uk+2=a(Uk+1)+b(Uk) to get Uk+1=a(Uk)+b(Uk-1). I then show it's true for n=k+1. And to finish I conclude it by saying: I have shown the proposition is true for n=1 and n=2 and that if it's true for n<=k then it's true for n=k+1. Therefore, by mathematical induction, it is true for (...).
Also I don't get it why for some recurrence relations you have to prove it for n=1 and n=2.
This is for FP1 Edexcel.
Any help is greatly appreciated.
Tom.
(edited 8 years ago)
Sorry you've not had any responses about this. :frown: Are you sure you’ve posted in the right place? Posting in the specific Study Help forum should help get responses. :redface:

I'm going to quote in Puddles the Monkey now so she can move your thread to the right place if it's needed. :h: :yy:

Spoiler

Reply 2
Original post by TSR Jessica
Sorry you've not had any responses about this. :frown: Are you sure you’ve posted in the right place? Posting in the specific Study Help forum
should help get responses. :redface:

I'm going to quote in Puddles the Monkey now so she can move your thread to the right place if it's needed. :h: :yy:


Oh I see. This is the first time I've asked a question on TSR so I have no idea how to use it.
Reply 3
Original post by target21859
Hi,
I have a question about proof of recurrence relations by induction. Is it fine to do them in a way that isn't in the mark scheme? For the ones where you have to prove it for n=1 and n=2 I do it for Uk=something and Uk-1=something. I then sub in n=k-1 into Uk+2=a(Uk+1)+b(Uk) to get Uk+1=a(Uk)+b(Uk-1). I then show it's true for n=k+1. And to finish I conclude it by saying: I have shown the proposition is true for n=1 and n=2 and that if it's true for n<=k then it's true for n=k+1. Therefore, by mathematical induction, it is true for (...).
Also I don't get it why for some recurrence relations you have to prove it for n=1 and n=2.
This is for FP1 Edexcel.
Any help is greatly appreciated.
Tom.


Unless I'm mistaken, what you're describing is the distinction between what's called "weak induction" and "strong induction". In the first case, you basically prove something for a base case - typically n = 1 - and then prove that if it's true for k then it's true for k+ 1. In the 2nd case, you prove 1 (or more) base case(s) and then show that being true for all positive integers <= some k is suffficient to prove the relation for k.

These are both valid techniques of induction, but I'd be surprised if FP1 requires you to use the more general version! Can you give us an example of a question where you've had trouble using the standard method?
Reply 4
I have attached my solution to the question.
Reply 5
Original post by davros
Unless I'm mistaken, what you're describing is the distinction between what's called "weak induction" and "strong induction". In the first case, you basically prove something for a base case - typically n = 1 - and then prove that if it's true for k then it's true for k+ 1. In the 2nd case, you prove 1 (or more) base case(s) and then show that being true for all positive integers <= some k is suffficient to prove the relation for k.

These are both valid techniques of induction, but I'd be surprised if FP1 requires you to use the more general version! Can you give us an example of a question where you've had trouble using the standard method?

I've replied (previous message) but it didn't reply directly to you.

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