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Alevel maths q help needed

The curve y=lnx passes through the point (a, b), where a > 1.
The area A is bounded by the x-axis, the line x = a and the curve y=lnx .
The area B is bounded by the x-axis, the y-axis, the line y = b and the curve y=lnx.
The area A is equal in magnitude to the area B.
(a) Show that a satisfies the equation palna+qa+r= 0, where p, q and r are constants to be determined.

I've expressed the area of A but do not know how to express area of B, furthest I got with that was b=lna
Reply 1
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/809953763921362944/1107082788991148093/image.png

This is the answer
(not sure how i can upload the picture directly)
Reply 2
Original post by xivst
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/809953763921362944/1107082788991148093/image.png

This is the answer
(not sure how i can upload the picture directly)

You could integrate the inverse function, or note that the required area between the curve and the y axis is the area of the bounding rectangle - A. In the posted working, theyve done the former, though the latter is the simpler way to do it?
(edited 11 months ago)
Original post by xivst
The curve y=lnx passes through the point (a, b), where a > 1.
The area A is bounded by the x-axis, the line x = a and the curve y=lnx .
The area B is bounded by the x-axis, the y-axis, the line y = b and the curve y=lnx.
The area A is equal in magnitude to the area B.
(a) Show that a satisfies the equation palna+qa+r= 0, where p, q and r are constants to be determined.

I've expressed the area of A but do not know how to express area of B, furthest I got with that was b=lna


Could you post an image of the actual question?
Reply 4
Original post by Bruce Wayne59875
Could you post an image of the actual question?


That is exactly how the question is put on the paper but I'll try
Reply 5
Original post by Bruce Wayne59875
Could you post an image of the actual question?


https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/809953763921362944/1108036945365438589/image.png
Reply 6


Do you see why its
* the usual integral of the inverse function e^x (reflection in y=x) or
* the area of the bounding rectangle - the integral of ln(x), so aln(a)-A
(edited 11 months ago)
Reply 7
Original post by mqb2766
Do you see why its
* the usual integral of the inverse function e^x (reflection in y=x) or
* the area of the bounding rectangle - the integral of ln(x), so aln(a)-A


I can understand how area A was worked out but I think I'm getting confused with how to visualise area B with the information given in the question
Reply 8
Original post by xivst
I can understand how area A was worked out but I think I'm getting confused with how to visualise area B with the information given in the question

If you sketched A, so the area under ln(x) between 1..a, then put a rectangle around it so with vertices (0,0), (0,ln(a)), (a,0), (a, ln(a)), then B would be the complement of A in that rectangle, so "the area to the left" of ln(x).

Thinking about its shape as a function of y, its "clearly" an exponential as this is the inverse of ln(x) which is the approach used in the solution. However you can also just do
B = area of rectangle - A
So you only really need to work out A (or B).
(edited 11 months ago)

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