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dont understand
everyone is saying e^-(x^2) cannot be integrating and talking about areas being infinite blah blah blah thats all very well but
if i take -(1/2x)e^-(x^2) and differentiate i get back to the original function which suggests that this is the anti derivative or integral of it
obviously something is wrong
please explain.......................
if i take -(1/2x)e^-(x^2) and differentiate i get back to the original function which suggests that this is the anti derivative or integral of it
obviously something is wrong
please explain.......................
Errr.... use the quotient rule. That does NOT differentiate back to
ach feck good point wrote it without realising it was with 2 x terms
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