hi, I have this statement "Pure acids are bad conductors, but if two pure acids are mixed together, they conduct" Which I need to explain.
Obviously pure acids aren't dissociated into ions, so no charged particles = no electricity.
The second part has stumped me a bit though, the only thing I could come up with is the two acids react together, one acting as a base. I'm not sure this is correct though, and I'd quite like some clarification on the matter if anybody would be so kind.