The Student Room Group

M2 June 06 Q6

Link to paper:

http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/attachment.php?attachmentid=100103&d=1303767641

Ok so I've shown μ=4861 \mu = \frac {48}{61}

I also know that it is in limiting equilibrium, so Friction = Fmax

and Friction can be \leq Fmax.

So how do you get from this to saying

μ4861 \mu \geq \frac{48}{61}

I thought that Fmax is the largest value friction could be which is when the coefficient is 48/61, so how could it be larger than this? :s-smilie:

Thanks.
Reply 1
Fmax = μR \mu R

so f μR \leq \mu R
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 2
I understand that in limiting equilibrium, Friction now equals Fmax.

And friction can vary from any value up to Fmax, which is when M = 48/61.

But I don't understand how M varies. I thought it meant that the largest friction could be possibly be is at 48/61.
Original post by H3rrW4rum
I understand that in limiting equilibrium, Friction now equals Fmax. And friction can vary from any value up to Fmax

True.


which is when M = 48/61.


False.

The rod is resting in equilibrium, yes, but it's not limiting equilibrium. The frictional force is NOT Fmax.

If it was limiting equilibrium then yes, you'd have M = 48/61, but as it's not the the coefficient of friction could be higher.
Reply 4
Original post by ghostwalker
True.



False.

The rod is resting in equilibrium, yes, but it's not limiting equilibrium. The frictional force is NOT Fmax.

If it was limiting equilibrium then yes, you'd have M = 48/61, but as it's not the the coefficient of friction could be higher.


So even though in our working out we are using the notation MR, we are still not talking about Fmax and the highest upper limit of friction?

So what's the difference between equilibrium and limiting equilibrium? :

Equilibrium is when all forces are equal and limiting is when they're all equal AND it has to be Fmax?

Thanks, this has had me confused for ages.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 5
Original post by H3rrW4rum
So even though in our working out we are using the notation MR, we are still not talking about Fmax and the highest upper limit of friction?

So what's the difference between equilibrium and limiting equilibrium? :

Equilibrium is when all forces are equal and limiting is when they're all equal AND it has to be Fmax?

Thanks, this has had me confused for ages.


Limiting equilibrium is when the object is just about to come out of equilibrium so on the point of tipping/sliding/falling etc..
Reply 6
Original post by ghostwalker
...



Also, should we be using the notation MR to work out M = 48/61.

Because it seems weird to go M = 48/61, then all of a sudden M \geq 48/61.

So could we call the coefficient of friction M when it is only in equilibrium, as we have already stated that this value doesn't necessarily equal M :s-smilie:

Or would we call the coefficient of friction something else, like α \alpha , then we can rightly state μα \mu \geq \alpha .

This seems to make more sense: I don't like the idea of μ=4861μ4861 \mu = \frac {48}{61} \Rightarrow \mu \geq \frac{48}{61} .
Original post by H3rrW4rum
Also, should we be using the notation MR to work out M = 48/61.

Because it seems weird to go M = 48/61, then all of a sudden M \geq 48/61.


I'd use FμRF\le\mu R, with equality if it's in limiting equilibrium.


So could we call the coefficient of friction M when it is only in equilibrium, as we have already stated that this value doesn't necessarily equal M :s-smilie:

Or would we call the coefficient of friction something else, like α \alpha , then we can rightly state μα \mu \geq \alpha .


It's ALWAYS the coefficient of friction μ\mu


I don't like the idea of μ=4861μ4861 \mu = \frac {48}{61} \Rightarrow \mu \geq \frac{48}{61} .



Neither do I
Reply 8
Original post by ghostwalker
I'd use FμRF\le\mu R, with equality if it's in limiting equilibrium.


I thought its F = MR in limiting, and F \leq MR for resting?
Original post by H3rrW4rum
I thought its F = MR in limiting, and F \leq MR for resting?


Resting?

Do read my post carefully: That is what I said without using the word "resting".
Hmm I was also under the belief that you use the inequality if it is not in limiting equilibrium, but use the equality if it is =\ .
Reply 11
Original post by ghostwalker
Resting?

Do read my post carefully: That is what I said without using the word "resting".


By resting I meant resting equilibrium.

I thought that was the difference between limiting and resting equilibrium. That is what I gathered from your post:

"The rod is resting in equilibrium, yes, but it's not limiting equilibrium. The frictional force is NOT Fmax"

I presumed resting meant it only had to be friction, and not Fmax, because then M 4861 \geq \frac {48}{61} would make sense to me.

Damn, seemed to have gone in one big circle :frown:
Original post by H3rrW4rum
By resting I meant resting equilibrium.

I thought that was the difference between limiting and resting equilibrium. That is what I gathered from your post:

"The rod is resting in equilibrium, yes, but it's not limiting equilibrium. The frictional force is NOT Fmax"

I presumed resting meant it only had to be friction, and not Fmax, because then M 4861 \geq \frac {48}{61} would make sense to me.

Damn, seemed to have gone in one big circle :frown:


Resting is just a verb, you could say it was sitting in equilibrium, reclining in equilibrium, etc., which is why I didn't understand you.

The key phrse is "in equilibrium", which is how you know F<=MR. If it says "limiting equilibrium" then F=MR.

"limiting equilibrium" is still "in equlibrium"

"In equlibrium, F<=MR means F<MR OR F=MR; it could be limiting, but you're not told that, so all you know is F<=MR

If it's in equlibrium but not limiting equilibrium, then yes, the frictional force is not Fmax.
Reply 13
Original post by ghostwalker
Resting is just a verb, you could say it was sitting in equilibrium, reclining in equilibrium, etc., which is why I didn't understand you.

The key phrse is "in equilibrium", which is how you know F<=MR. If it says "limiting equilibrium" then F=MR.

"limiting equilibrium" is still "in equlibrium"

"In equlibrium, F<=MR means F<MR OR F=MR; it could be limiting, but you're not told that, so all you know is F<=MR

If it's in equlibrium but not limiting equilibrium, then yes, the frictional force is not Fmax.


I understand now.

/thread :biggrin:

Thanks for all your help. (Rep'd you a while back, but have a feeling you're not too bothered anyway :wink:).
Original post by ViralRiver
Hmm I was also under the belief that you use the inequality if it is not in limiting equilibrium, but use the equality if it is =\ .


That is what I said.

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