I dont understand the second step written in pencil how in the mark scheme it just multiplies 2sinxcosx by cosx on numerator and denominator. How is it not 2sinxcos^2x - sinx?
I dont understand the second step written in pencil how in the mark scheme it just multiplies 2sinxcosx by cosx on numerator and denominator. How is it not 2sinxcos^2x - sinx?
I didn't realise you could just do that, is it the same with all trig proof questions then?
The reason you can do that is because you are effectively only multiplying by 1 as cos(x)cos(x)=1 Im not sure what you mean " is it the same with all trig proof questions then"
The reason you can do that is because you are effectively only multiplying by 1 as cos(x)cos(x)=1 Im not sure what you mean " is it the same with all trig proof questions then"
Ah yeah I see now don't worry, I was just a bit confused because i didn't really think about it like that. Thanks for the help!