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Random questions

I feel a bit bad always asking questions but I have tried to research these questions but haven't come up with much. Hopefully if i eventually get into a university for law I'll be able to do the same for other people. Anyway I'm slightly confused over the circumstances under which verbal contracts are valid are enforceable. Surely if it is a verbal contracts and two parties are in dispute it comes down to one person's word against another, so how does is such a situation sorted out? My second question is to what extent is European law supposed to be enforced in the UK, in what circumstances should it override or apply to?
Reply 1
I'm getting the gist that no one wants to give me a few pointers, fari enough, but could someone at least recommend what to type into google to get something relevant?
With few exceptions (notably contracts to transfer an interest in land) it makes no legal difference whether a contract is written or unwritten. So there isn't much to research!
Reply 3
Ok thank you, I also managed to find something explaining that you do generally need some sort of evidence of a verbal contract. How about the EU thing? I understand that it is supposed to have primacy over national law but from what i've picked up this not always followed strictly?
Reply 4
Basically all EU Law has precedence of member states' domestic law. However are many sources of EU law such as traties,directives, recommendations etc and they individually differ regarding enforcing the law. For example treaties are immediatley in force whilest member states' have a certain amount of time to enforce a directive.

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