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STEP Prep Thread 2015

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hey, my first post in this thread :biggrin::biggrin::biggrin::biggrin:

Are any of you guys trying to tackle stats questions on STEP I,II and III.

And how is your prep going
Original post by mmms95
If you didn't write on your UCAS that you're taking STEP/AEA, do you have to update it or something if end up taking it?? or would you just send a copy of your results to your uni on results day???


Is it a part of your offers? Either way doesnt matter they find out anyway.


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by mmms95
Yeah it's included in one of my offers


Posted from TSR Mobile


The STEP entry form asks where you have applied and for your UCAS number. They then send the results through automatically. AEA is run by Edexcel so goes via UCAS.

You don't need to add either of them to the UCAS form or tell the universities.
Can anyone give me any hints for the last part of Q6 III 1995, please?

Here is what I've done so far:
Unparseable latex formula:

Let \ w=re^{i \theta} \Leftrightarrow \frac{1}{w}=\frac{1}{r} e^{-i \theta} = \frac{1}{r} (cos(\theta) + isin(\theta)}


Hence to meet the condition
cos(θ)r=1r=cos(θ) \frac{cos(\theta)}{r}=-1 \Leftrightarrow r=-cos(\theta)
So rewrite w=cos(θ)eiθ w=-cos(\theta) e^{i\theta}

So, we clearly want points whose modulus are w=cos(θ)|w|=|-cos(\theta)|, thinking about how this graph looks in polar coordinates (r=cos(θ) r=-cos(\theta) I arrive at the following:

So, if we use the locus w+0.5=0.25 |w+0.5| = 0.25 we get the circle radius 0.5 centred at (-0.5, 0).

Consider any point on the radius of that circle. Join a triangle from it to the origin and the centre of the circle. We get the following triangle (shown in picture)
Hence by the cosine rule w=cos(θ) |w|=cos(\theta) which agrees with the above.
Noting that for w+0.5=0.25 |w+0.5| = 0.25 to hold π/2θπ or π<θπ/2 \pi /2 \leq \theta \leq \pi \ or \ - \pi < \theta \leq - \pi/2 Hence if we take the modulus of 1w=1cos(θ) |\frac{1}{w}| = |\frac{1}{cos(\theta)}| and use the argument of 1w=θ \frac{1}{w} = -\theta we see w=1cos(θ)(cos(θ)+isin(θ))=1itan(θ) w=|\frac{1}{cos(\theta)}| (cos(\theta) + isin(-\theta))= -1 - itan(\theta) .
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by DomStaff
Can anyone give me any hints for the last part of Q6 III 1995, please?

Here is what I've done so far:
Unparseable latex formula:

Let \ w=re^{i \theta} \Leftrightarrow \frac{1}{w}=\frac{1}{r} = e^{-i \theta} = \frac{1}{r} (cos(\theta) + isin(\theta)}


Hence to meet the condition
cos(θ)r=1r=cos(θ) \frac{cos(\theta)}{r}=-1 \Leftrightarrow r=-cos(\theta)
So rewrite w=cos(θ)eiθ w=-cos(\theta) e^{i\theta}

So, we clearly want points whose modulus are |w|=|-cos(\theta)|, thinking about how this graph looks in polar coordinates I arrive at the following:

So, if we use the locus w+0.5=0.25 |w+0.5| = 0.25 we get the circle radius 0.5 centred at (-0.5, 0).

Consider any point on the radius of that circle. Join a triangle from it to the origin and the centre of the circle. We get the following triangle (shown in picture)
Hence by the cosine rule w=cos(θ) |w|=cos(\theta) which agrees with the above.
Noting that for w+0.5=0.25 |w+0.5| = 0.25 to hold π/2θπ or π<θπ/2 \pi /2 \leq \theta \leq \pi \ or \ - \pi < \theta \leq - \pi/2 Hence if we take the modulus of 1w=1cos(θ) |\frac{1}{w}| = |\frac{1}{cos(\theta)}| and use the argument of 1w=θ \frac{1}{w} = -\theta we see w=1cos(θ)(cos(θ)+isin(θ)=1+isin(θ) w=|\frac{1}{cos(\theta)}| (cos(\theta) + isin(\theta)= -1 + isin(\theta) .


I think a simpler method is just to consider 1/w = -1 + iy, but your method seems fine
Original post by jjpneed1
I think a simpler method is just to consider 1/w = -1 + iy, but your method seems fine


Sorry, keep on noticing errors in my latex. So it is alright? Yeah, it did seem rather long winded (even by STEP standards). Hm, I'll give that some thought.
Original post by jjpneed1
I think a simpler method is just to consider 1/w = -1 + iy, but your method seems fine


As soon as he posted it, thats what I thought of, but I got to

w=-1/(1+y^2)-y/(1+y^2)i

how can you show that this is a circle centre (-0.5,0) and radius 0.5?
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by raff97
As soon as he posted it, thats what I thought of, but I got to

w=-1/(1+y^2)-y/(1+y^2)i

how can you show that this is a circle centre (-0.5,0) and radius 0.5?


Let u = real part and let v = imaginary part. Then eliminate y
Original post by jjpneed1
Let u = real part and let v = imaginary part. Then eliminate y


wow that was stupid of me. thanks anyway
On the topic of solving parametric equations, something has been bugging me ever since we did them in C4. How come sometimes we can just square equations without losing information?
The most common parametric equation you see is the circle one, x=cost, y=sint, and the way we are taught to eliminate t is by squaring both equations and adding to give x^2+y^2=1, which is a unit circle as we expect. But why does this method work even though we are inventing new solutions in the act of squaring?
Original post by raff97
On the topic of solving parametric equations, something has been bugging me ever since we did them in C4. How come sometimes we can just square equations without losing information?
The most common parametric equation you see is the circle one, x=cost, y=sint, and the way we are taught to eliminate t is by squaring both equations and adding to give x^2+y^2=1, which is a unit circle as we expect. But why does this method work even though we are inventing new solutions in the act of squaring?


Squaring is okay. It's square rooting that causes a problem.

In theory, you should be able to solve equations by squaring, providing that all your variables are positive; otherwise you would need to use modulus signs, which can get messy.
hey guys, are you planning on to tackle STEP stats question this summer??
Original post by Alex:
Squaring is okay. It's square rooting that causes a problem.

In theory, you should be able to solve equations by squaring, providing that all your variables are positive; otherwise you would need to use modulus signs, which can get messy.


Yes I understand that you can square when variables are all positive like when calculating lengths in a mechanics/geometry problem. But in parametrics x and y take both positive and negative values, as do sines and cosines.
Original post by momoney1996
hey guys, are you planning on to tackle STEP stats question this summer??


The only time I'll attempt a STEP stats question is if it's an easy probability question or a question with lots of integration (like STEP III 2005 Q14). Aside from that I'll avoid it as much as possible. Hopefully I'll find enough questions across pure and mechanics that I like.
can someone pls explain STEP 1 1999 Qu 8 the last part, I've looked at the solutions and it looks like a few vague jumps are made
Original post by C-king
can someone pls explain STEP 1 1999 Qu 8 the last part, I've looked at the solutions and it looks like a few vague jumps are made


That question is done in Silkos book. He gives a good solution. Its question 25, page 67 btw
Original post by raff97
Yes I understand that you can square when variables are all positive like when calculating lengths in a mechanics/geometry problem. But in parametrics x and y take both positive and negative values, as do sines and cosines.


You're not "inventing new solutions" because you're not "solving" anything in the first place!

If x = cos t and y = sin t, then it's a fact of life that x^2 + y^2 = 1 because that follows from an identity.

What you can't do is start from x^2 + y^2 = 1 and write y = (some function of x) because typically for each x value there will be 2 values of y on the circle so you don't have a function that returns a single y value.
Original post by davros
You're not "inventing new solutions" because you're not "solving" anything in the first place!

If x = cos t and y = sin t, then it's a fact of life that x^2 + y^2 = 1 because that follows from an identity.

What you can't do is start from x^2 + y^2 = 1 and write y = (some function of x) because typically for each x value there will be 2 values of y on the circle so you don't have a function that returns a single y value.


Maybe he meant that if the domain was,
2t1\displaystyle -2 \leq t \leq 1

Then squaring leads to domain issues for the Cartesian?
For STEP I 2010 Q8, I was not sure how to phrase my conclusion to proving that the only solution is a=b=c=0. I'm aware that the argument is infinite descent, but I couldn't think of a concise sentence, and my explanation seems contrived.

"As (2) is the same equation to (1), d,e,f [the new terms in the equation] must also be divisible by 5, and this can continue ad infinitum. However this is a contradiction as there must exist an irreducible equation that is not divisible by 5. Hence the only solution to (1) is a=b=c=0".

To me it seems that it doesn't explain the heart of the argument I'm trying to make. Is there a better way to phrase it?
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by davros
You're not "inventing new solutions" because you're not "solving" anything in the first place!

If x = cos t and y = sin t, then it's a fact of life that x^2 + y^2 = 1 because that follows from an identity.

What you can't do is start from x^2 + y^2 = 1 and write y = (some function of x) because typically for each x value there will be 2 values of y on the circle so you don't have a function that returns a single y value.


my problem is the "equation" can't tell the difference between x=sint and x=-sint when squaring.

Let me give an example where the squaring method doesn't work:

say you're given x=sqrt(1+t^2), y=(1+t^2)

then if you square the first you get x^2=1+t^2
subbing it into the second gives you y=x^2

The values of x and y to the right of the y axis are correct, but the values to the left should not be there (x has to be positive since sqrt>0) but the square we did earlier "invented" these values incorrectly.

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