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Reply 780
Original post by shamika
I also gave him the feedback that applicants are finding the Imperial entry requirements confusing because there is no clarity for AEA requirements, and that it is not made public the rule about not asking for STEP when someone is taking 4A2's.

I had a duty to let him know how to use the information though - if he doesn't want to divulge anything, he's well within his rights to tell me to sod off!


I sure hope you get an informative reply. That information would be amazing :tongue:
Reply 781
Can someone explain to me why n3=0,1,6(mod7)n^{3}=0,1,6 (mod7)? Looking at the residues mod 7 there's obviously a clear pattern, but I don't have an intuitive understanding.

How can you prove this rigorously without using induction on n(n3+1)(n31)n(n^{3}+1)(n^{3}-1)?
Original post by und
Can someone explain to me why n3=0,1,6(mod7)n^{3}=0,1,6 (mod7)? Looking at the residues mod 7 there's obviously a clear pattern, but I don't have an intuitive understanding.

How can you prove this rigorously without using induction on n(n3+1)(n31)n(n^{3}+1)(n^{3}-1)?


if a^m= b mod n, then (nk+a)^m = b mod n. all you have to do is consider the residues of 0-6^3 mod 7 :wink:


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Original post by und
Can someone explain to me why n3=0,1,6(mod7)n^{3}=0,1,6 (mod7)? Looking at the residues mod 7 there's obviously a clear pattern, but I don't have an intuitive understanding.

How can you prove this rigorously without using induction on n(n3+1)(n31)n(n^{3}+1)(n^{3}-1)?

argue by cases
0^3=0, 1^3=1, 2^3=8=7+1, 3^3=27=21+6, 4^3=64=63+1, 5^3=125=119+6, 6^3=216=210+6
EDIT:beaten by tmm
(edited 11 years ago)
Reply 784
Original post by TheMagicMan
if a^m= b mod n, then (nk+a)^m = b mod n. all you have to do is consider the residues of 0-6^3 mod 7 :wink:


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I can see that pattern but how do you go about proving the result you've just posted?
Reply 785
Original post by ben-smith
argue by cases
0^3=0, 1^3=1, 2^3=8=7+1, 3^3=27=21+6, 4^3=64=63+1, 5^3=125=119+6, 6^3=216=210+6
EDIT:beaten by tmm

Surely that's not rigorous? It's easy enough to find the pattern and state it, but how do you prove it?
Original post by und
I can see that pattern but how do you go about proving the result you've just posted?


Binomial theorem?


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Original post by und
Surely that's not rigorous? It's easy enough to find the pattern and state it, but how do you prove it?


Those are the only possibilities...
abmod(n)arbrmod(n)a \equiv b mod(n) \Rightarrow a^r \equiv b^r mod(n)
Reply 788
Original post by TheMagicMan
Binomial theorem?


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I had a feeling that would be the case...

Original post by ben-smith
Those are the only possibilities...
abmod(n)arbrmod(n)a \equiv b mod(n) \Rightarrow a^r \equiv b^r mod(n)

I'm not familiar with the rules of modular arithmetic but isn't this the same as what TheMagicMan posted, just in different notation?
Original post by und
I had a feeling that would be the case...


I'm not familiar with the rules of modular arithmetic but isn't this the same as what TheMagicMan posted, just in different notation?


I'd like to think I came up with it on my own :tongue:
Original post by und
I had a feeling that would be the case...


I'm not familiar with the rules of modular arithmetic but isn't this the same as what TheMagicMan posted, just in different notation?


Yes they're equivalent


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Original post by und
Can someone explain to me why n3=0,1,6(mod7)n^{3}=0,1,6 (mod7)? Looking at the residues mod 7 there's obviously a clear pattern, but I don't have an intuitive understanding.

How can you prove this rigorously without using induction on n(n3+1)(n31)n(n^{3}+1)(n^{3}-1)?


As others have said, you have to consider all the cases. This is called 'proof by exhaustion' and is quite valid provided you show that you have dealt with them all.

If you are looking for a 'deeper' explanation of 'why?', capable of a more powerful proof then that's above my pay grade. Last I heard the Four-colour theorem has only been proved by an inelegant proof by exhaustion, which leaves open the question of 'why?'.
Reply 792
I got a response from Imperial regarding their requirements:

Their application process works in two stages. In the first stage, they decide whether to give you an offer or not. As they no longer interview, this is based on the enthusiasm you show for the subject. Good examples would be:

- doing maths competitions (e.g. the Olympiad - if you get a gold in the first round say so and definitely trumpet getting into BMO 1 and above)

- seeking out and attending 'public lectures' or attending Summer Schools - check out the ones organised by the Sutton Trust, they sound spectacular. These are typically only available for those in non-privileged backgrounds.

- reading "serious books". Please do not make stuff up - no one will believe you if you say you've mastered an undergrad book (say Baby Rudin - look it up) if your A-Level grades aren't spectacular and you've should have also done other things on this list

- "learning more maths by yourself." For example, I learned about modular arithmetic reading What is Mathematics? and got as far as quadratic residues. That's the sort of thing that'll make anyone take notice (and to be fair was way over the top - I got a bit carried away when I realised how awesome pure maths was compared to A-Levels). Or you could read The Road to Reality and say something sensible about the sophistication of the underlying mathematical models used to describe physical phenomena

(the examples above come directly from Skoro, including the quotes)

He makes the point that one of the easiest ways to demonstrate commitment is to highlight you are planning on taking STEP. I therefore infer that many of you will mention it in your personal statements anyway. Mentioning STEP makes it more likely you'll get an offer but it will not by itself guarantee a place for you.

Note that Imperial still treat each individual application separately - including reading references and finding out a bit about the sort of school you currently attend (e.g. is it a state school or an elite independent). Therefore in isolation they may make offers which seem random but they have to look at the overall quality of students applying (see below for more on this)

Once they've decided to give you an offer, they then decide on the exact form. Again, there is discretion that can be applied - offers can and will be tweaked depending on circumstances.

- Typically they will give STEP offers where possible (and in fairness, a 2 in II or III is not an overly high barrier to reach)

- Where they do not give STEP offers, they will try to make offers based on 4 A2's (with A*A* in maths and further maths, obviously as a minimum)

- In "rarer cases" you may get an offer on just 3 A2's but you'll pretty much have to be exceptional. There is flexibility to take into account the school you've gone to (e.g. if its a state school where typically only 3 A2's is standard). This is not an excuse or a pity offer - you'll have to be pretty outstanding. The example given was a medal at IMO but that's obviously a bit extreme (if you're that outstanding getting an offer from Imperial should be the least of your worries)

So there you have it. I've asked a follow up to clarify the use of AEA rather than STEP, but let's give him some time to get back to me. He was great with agreeing to share all the above (even if none of it is earth-shattering) so I've already thanked him on behalf of all of you :smile:

I'll post a link to this in the maths applicants page too, in case people find it useful there too.
(edited 11 years ago)
Here is a rather nice problem for you maths junkies out there....

If I break a straight stick into n pieces, what is the probability that I can form an n sided polygon from the pieces?

Answer:

Spoiler




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Original post by TheMagicMan
Here is a rather nice problem for you maths junkies out there....

If I break a straight stick into n pieces, what is the probability that I can form an n sided polygon from the pieces?

Answer:

Spoiler




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So there is a probability of 1/4 that you can make a 2 sides polygon?

You're lying.. :tongue:

Spoiler

Reply 795
Original post by Intriguing Alias
So there is a probability of 1/4 that you can make a 2 sides polygon?

You're lying.. :tongue:

Spoiler


Poisson distribution? :lol:
Original post by Intriguing Alias
So there is a probability of 1/4 that you can make a 2 sides polygon?

You're lying.. :tongue:

Spoiler



:colonhash:

Well yes basically...this is a question that with a bit of hinting could easily appear on a step paper I think (it is probably too hard without hints (yes that's a challenge to you all :tongue:))


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Reply 797
Original post by TheMagicMan
:colonhash:

Well yes basically...this is a question that with a bit of hinting could easily appear on a step paper I think (it is probably too hard without hints (yes that's a challenge to you all :tongue:))


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Spoiler



Never mind. I see where I went wrong with my assumption.
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by und

Spoiler



You don't need to know any fancy distributions for this...all it requires is a little bit of ingenuity. Try the primitive case e.g. n=3


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Reply 799
Original post by Intriguing Alias

Spoiler



Don't read unless you're still stuck - I think I give the game away. Hard to know how much to prod in something like this :wink:

Spoiler

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