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Billy's (modestly sized) fourth term "help!" thread

Hi all. :smile: Will probably be updating this thread (hopefully not too frequently) with stuff I don't understand over the next eight weeks or so.

I'm struggling on a bit of linear algebra at the moment:

"For each of the following pairs of vector spaces (V, W) over R, either give an isomorphism V --> W or show that no such isomorphism can exist.
...
(f) V = R^4, W = C[0,1] (space of continuous functions defined on [0,1])."

I can't really think of how to approach this, because I can't think of a basis for C[0,1]. I'm fairly convinced there isn't a four-element basis for it (otherwise Fourier series would be a bit easier than they are), but I'm not sure if I can prove it. Is it sufficient just to give the functions f(x) = 1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4, and say they're all linearly independent, and consequently any basis for C[0,1] has at least (dim V)+1 elements, so there can't exist an isomorphism? :s-smilie:

Thanks for any help. :smile:

Scroll to see replies

Reply 1
generalebriety

Is it sufficient just to give the functions f(x) = 1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4, and say they're all linearly independent, and consequently any basis for C[0,1] has at least (dim V)+1 elements, so there can't exist an isomorphism? :s-smilie:


Yes. If you really want to spell it out just note that under any potential isomorphism this 5D subspace would correspond to a 5D subspace of R^4
Reply 2
Remember that a vector space isomorphism is a linear map and hence can be entirely characterised by its action on the basis (once you've picked one) and that the dimension of spaces over a given field is an invariant of their isomorphism class.
Oops. I forgot to subscribe to this thread, so I didn't see it got updated. :o: No worries, though - I hadn't gone back to linear algebra since then. Thanks for your help, you two.

My quantum mechanics lecture looks like he's being intentionally difficult here:

"Time-dependent Schrödinger equation,
iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.
Separation of variables,
ψ(x,t)=χ(x)eiωt.\displaystyle \psi(\mathbf{x},t) = \chi(\mathbf{x}) e^{-i\omega t}."

How on earth does the second line follow from the first?
Reply 4
generalebriety
Oops. I forgot to subscribe to this thread, so I didn't see it got updated. :o: No worries, though - I hadn't gone back to linear algebra since then. Thanks for your help, you two.

My quantum mechanics lecture looks like he's being intentionally difficult here:

"Time-dependent Schrödinger equation,
iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.
Separation of variables,
ψ(x,t)=χ(x)eiωt.\displaystyle \psi(\mathbf{x},t) = \chi(\mathbf{x}) e^{-i\omega t}."

How on earth does the second line follow from the first?

What has he defined omega as?
yusufu
What has he defined omega as?

I don't think he has. He refers to it as "angular frequency", though of what I don't know.
Reply 6
What I found when I studied PDEs was that they often try a separation ansatz and work from the assumption that there is a solution of that form.

So the second line *might* not follow as such. It might just be a matter of saying "throw this into the equation and find what χ\chi must be if there is a solution of this form".

I'm probably wrong though :p:


EDIT: This would make sense, actually, since a typical ansatz would be to assume a solution of the form ψ(x,t)=α(x)β(t)\psi (x,t) = \alpha (x) \beta (t), which is what s/he's done here except s/he's given you a specific function of t here. Unless ω\omega is somehow a function of x. *shrugs*
Reply 7
generalebriety
I don't think he has. He refers to it as "angular frequency", though of what I don't know.

hmm. I didn't spot that last year.

I'll have a think.
Reply 8
Right, I have an idea that seems to work. I'll type it up as soon as I get back from the kitchen. Give me 5 mins
Reply 9
generalebriety
Oops. I forgot to subscribe to this thread, so I didn't see it got updated. :o: No worries, though - I hadn't gone back to linear algebra since then. Thanks for your help, you two.

My quantum mechanics lecture looks like he's being intentionally difficult here:

"Time-dependent Schrödinger equation,
iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.
Separation of variables,
ψ(x,t)=χ(x)eiωt.\displaystyle \psi(\mathbf{x},t) = \chi(\mathbf{x}) e^{-i\omega t}."

How on earth does the second line follow from the first?

Do you want my full explanation or hints and stuff?
Reply 10
generalebriety
Oops. I forgot to subscribe to this thread, so I didn't see it got updated. :o: No worries, though - I hadn't gone back to linear algebra since then. Thanks for your help, you two.

My quantum mechanics lecture looks like he's being intentionally difficult here:

"Time-dependent Schrödinger equation,
iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.
Separation of variables,
ψ(x,t)=χ(x)eiωt.\displaystyle \psi(\mathbf{x},t) = \chi(\mathbf{x}) e^{-i\omega t}."

How on earth does the second line follow from the first?


He's almost certainly postulating a solution of that form, and the actual form of the time part is from solving the equation
iψt=Eψ\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = E \psi
i.e. the stationary state eigensolution of the Hamiltonian (from the spatial part of the wavefunction Hψ(x)=Eψ(x)H\psi(x) = E \psi(x) where there is no time dependence in the wavefunction)
and ω \omega is easily identifiable
Reply 11
generalebriety
Oops. I forgot to subscribe to this thread, so I didn't see it got updated. :o: No worries, though - I hadn't gone back to linear algebra since then. Thanks for your help, you two.

My quantum mechanics lecture looks like he's being intentionally difficult here:

"Time-dependent Schrödinger equation,
iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.
Separation of variables,
ψ(x,t)=χ(x)eiωt.\displaystyle \psi(\mathbf{x},t) = \chi(\mathbf{x}) e^{-i\omega t}."

How on earth does the second line follow from the first?

Dammit. Stupid new combi ovens burnt my dinner! :mad:

I'm gonna do some work now, so I'll just spoilerify each step.

iψt=22m2ψ+U(x)ψ.\displaystyle i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi + U(\mathbf{x}) \psi.

Consider a function ψ=χ(x)f(t) \psi = \chi (x) f(t)

Spoiler

Reply 12
Is it just me or are the spoiler tags in my post not working?
Reply 13
They're not working. You forgot to put them on the other end of the sentence.

It should be

Spoiler

Reply 14
yusufu
Is it just me or are the spoiler tags in my post not working?


you've got the slashes the wrong way round
That took me quite a while to get through, but I think I got it in the end. Cheers. :smile:

(Edit: I had a question, but I solved it. :p:)
"Show that the Green's function for the initial value problem y'''' + k^2 y'' = f(t), y(0) = y'(0) = y''(0) = y'''(0) = 0, is given by

G(t, T) = 0 for 0 < t < T,
G(t, T) = (1/k^2)(t - T) - (1/k^3) sin k(t - T) for t > T.

Hence write down the solution for f(t) = e^-t and verify that it satisfies the equation and initial conditions. (Hint: make life easy by noting G(T, T) = 0 for an IVP (initial value problem?) Green's function and so use the time invariance of the equation to take G(t, T) = f(t - T) for t > T.)"

I've found G, which was easy enough. I don't see how I'm meant to "write down" the solution for f = e^-t (unless he just wants me to write down a big messy integral?) - the hint doesn't mean much to me, and I really don't think he means G(t, T) = f(t - T), does he?

Thanks.
Reply 17
I'd write the integral. I think the hint is more for the verification part of the wuestion.
yusufu
I'd write the integral. I think the hint is more for the verification part of the wuestion.

Ah, I see. Then that makes sense - he didn't mean f as he defined it, he was just using it to mean an arbitrary function. Thanks. :smile:

Another question on Sturm-Liouville theory: I'm being asked to rewrite the equation x(x-1)y'' + ((1+a+b)x - c)y' + aby = 0 in the form ddx(p(x)dydx)q(x)-\dfrac{d}{dx} \left( p(x) \frac{dy}{dx} \right) - q(x), where a, b, c are constants. Use of an integrating factor gives me that

p(x)=expx(1+a+b)ucu(u1)du,q(x)=abx(x1)p(x).\displaystyle p(x) = \exp \int^x \frac{(1+a+b)u-c}{u(u-1)} du, \, q(x) = -\frac{ab}{x(x-1)} p(x).

But is this really meant to be quite so disgusting, or am I missing something?
It's somewhat disgusting, but the integrand splits into partial fractions, integrating gives you logs, and exponentiating gives you something not totally unbearable.

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