WW2 - were the allies to blame?

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Were the allies to blame for WW2?

The allies (US, Britain etc.) imposed harsh sanctions on Germany after WW1, knowing that it was highly likely this would provoke a nationalist backlash in Germany.

Hitler had a non-agression pact with Stalin, and never declared war on Britain and France, so is it fair to suggest that WW2 could have been prevented and that Hitler would have stopped his expansion at Czechoslovakia and Poland?

For my history dissertation I studied the Origins of World War II. If you read the Treaty of Versailles implemented after World War I you will find it to be particularly harsh to Germany. Germany was carved up in every area and many historians have argued the Treaty meant Germany could never recover and that World War II was certain as a result. France and Britain in particular were ruthless in demands and reparation payments, considering Germany didn't lose World War I. They surrendered with a government still largely intact. Perhaps the loss of land and downscale of the military was the harshest result of the Treaty. This meant that whoever led Germany after WW1 would want to seek more living space and build the armed forces back to a number where Germany could at least defend its borders. (Some historians argue Germany couldnt even defend its borders after WW1, if attacked)
However, I would argue it would take someone like Hitler to start WW2. The Treaty of Versailles simply paved the way for WW2.
Germany prior to WW2 had a long history of believing it was superior to other countries (Particularly those in the East). Frederick the Great was worshipped by the Nazi party and they installed this belief of superiority in the German people who actually did vote Hitler into power.