The Student Room Group

Circumference of a circle irrational?

Area of a circle = pi x r^2
If you have a radius 1 then the area = pi
Therefore the area should be irrational, but surely it's impossible to have an irrational area, it has to be definite.
What am I missing??
Reply 1
Original post by The Wavefunction
Area of a circle = pi x r^2
If you have a radius 1 then the area = pi
Therefore the area should be irrational, but surely it's impossible to have an irrational area, it has to be definite.
What am I missing??


Sorry if I don't understand your question correctly, but an irrational number is still a definite number with a well-defined value, so it's possible for a circle to have an area of 1 units square :smile:
there is no reason why the area has to be rational

:boing:
Original post by NDVA
Sorry if I don't understand your question correctly, but an irrational number is still a definite number with a well-defined value, so it's possible for a circle to have an area of 1 units square :smile:


I thought the whole point of irrational numbers was that they were endless, they can't be expressed as a fraction of 2 integers
Original post by the bear
there is no reason why the area has to be rational

:boing:


Really? That doesn't make sense to me (sorry)
Reply 5
Original post by The Wavefunction
I thought the whole point of irrational numbers was that they were endless, they can't be expressed as a fraction of 2 integers


Yes, irrational numbers can't be expressed as a fraction of 2 real integers, but this has nothing to do with your question :smile: The fact that the decimal representation is infinite has nothing to do with the 'finiteness' of the length. For example, you can have line of length 13\frac{1}{3}, which as a decimal is 0.3333...0.3333..., but the line still has finite length :tongue:
(edited 8 years ago)

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