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1. Screenshot below!

We have to apply DeMorgan'd laws twice.. And I have no clue how to do it!
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2. (Original post by JKITFC)
Screenshot below!

We have to apply DeMorgan'd laws twice.. And I have no clue how to do it!
Why don't you consider it pairwise?

and

Now you have
3. (Original post by JKITFC)
Screenshot below!

We have to apply DeMorgan'd laws twice.. And I have no clue how to do it!
Have a think about what de Morgan's laws say about . Now apply the fact that are mutually exclusive, in considering
4. (Original post by Zacken)
Why don't you consider it pairwise?

and

Now you have
Looks good, I got that far, didn't know the second application
5. (Original post by JKITFC)
Looks good, I got that far, didn't know the second application
Awesome! Couple that with Greg's hint above and all should be good.
6. (Original post by Zacken)
Awesome! Couple that with Greg's hint above and all should be good.
What does.. (A \cup B)^c \cap (C\cup D)^c = \cdots equal?
7. (Original post by JKITFC)
What does.. (A \cup B)^c \cap (C\cup D)^c = \cdots equal?
Perhaps if we write and that'll clarify matters: ? Hint: De Morgan.
8. (Original post by JKITFC)
Screenshot below!

We have to apply DeMorgan'd laws twice.. And I have no clue how to do it!
Why does the thread say probability? DeMorgan's laws are about formal logic.
9. (Original post by Juichiro)
Why does the thread say probability? DeMorgan's laws are about formal logic.
Because you can apply De Morgan laws to probabilistic events.
10. (Original post by Zacken)
Because you can apply De Morgan laws to probabilistic events.
Ah, that's interesting. Technically, true statements can be interpreted as statements of 100% probability so I guess it shouldn't be so surprising. Still cool though.
11. (Original post by Juichiro)
Ah, that's interesting. Technically, true statements can be interpreted as statements of 100% probability.
I've never really thought about it that way before! That does sound very intriguing.
12. Well you know that the LHS is saying that something other than A or B or C or D happened. and the P(something happened) = 1
13. (Original post by Juichiro)
Ah, that's interesting. Technically, true statements can be interpreted as statements of 100% probability so I guess it shouldn't be so surprising. Still cool though.
How do you deal with sets of measure zero?
14. (Original post by Zacken)
I've never really thought about it that way before! That does sound very intriguing.
Yeah, I found in an intro to logic book.

(Original post by Gregorius)
How do you deal with sets of measure zero?
What does that mean in terms of propositional logic?
15. (Original post by Juichiro)

What does that mean in terms of propositional logic?
I am querying your assertion that true statements can be interpreted in terms of 100% probability. As probability is done in the setting of a measure defined on a sigma algebra of sets, I am wondering what you do with sets of measure zero.
16. (Original post by Gregorius)
I am querying your assertion that true statements can be interpreted in terms of 100% probability. As probability is done in the setting of a measure defined on a sigma algebra of sets, I am wondering what you do with sets of measure zero.
No idea. I just read it in a textbook. I know what it means in propositional logic but not in set theory.

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