Original post by man111111
is it possible for a resistor with infinite resistance to have a potential difference across it when it is connected in parallel with another resistor?
The usual rule for resistances in parallel works fine in this case.
1/Reff = 1/R1+1/R2...
providing you agree 1/infinity = 0
the infinite parallel resistance has no effect on the overall resistance - it's like there's nothing but the non infinite resistances there.
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