The Student Room Group
V1/v2=n1/n2?
Reply 2
Maybe faradays law. emf=flux linkage/time. Taking max emf and period.
Reply 3
emf=5cos((2pi/T)t)= - d(flux linkage)/dt (where T is 40 microseconds)
=> (flux linkage)= -(5T/2pi)sin((2pi/T)t), and go from there...
Reply 4
*bobo*
emf=5cos((2pi/T)t)= - d(flux linkage)/dt (where T is 40 microseconds)
=> (flux linkage)= -(5T/2pi)sin((2pi/T)t), and go from there...


What's t in all that? Could you give a little more explanation please?

Edit: I think I get it enough. At least that method. In the mark scheme there is also something involving a quarter of the time period, giving an answer of 5x10^-5 webers in the end. Any idea on how they get that?
Reply 5
t is time.
flux linkage = - INT (5cos((2pi/T)t) dt = - (5T/(2pi))sin((2pi/T)t)
-1 </= sin((2pi/T)t) =/<1

So max. flux linkage= 5T/(2pi)= (5x40x10^(-6))/(2pi) Wb
Reply 6
*bobo*
t is time.
flux linkage = - INT (5cos((2pi/T)t) dt = - (5T/(2pi))sin((2pi/T)t)
-1 </= sin((2pi/T)t) =/<1

So max. flux linkage= 5T/(2pi)= (5x40x10^(-6))/(2pi) Wb


Yeah, I see more now. That's a very confusing way to use slashes btw. Thanks.
Is that from an edexcel past paper, if so what year was it?
Reply 8
Goodfella1989
Is that from an edexcel past paper, if so what year was it?

I dont recognise it from an edexcel paper, and i think ive done most of them. However i may be wrong...
Reply 9
What about e.m.f. = -N(dPHI/dt)

5 V =(-600 * dPHI)/(50x10^-6)

Then get dPHI from that?

Assuming e.m.f. is volts and not microvolts or whatever.

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