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Bernoulli's equation problem help

https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/692344148212187226/907401914956783656/20211108_224954.jpg

So I tried to rearrange bern's equation in order to solve for V in the 25mm diameter pipe, however I don't know how to find the velocity in the 10mm pipe. I tried to involve the volume flow rate formula (Qin = Qout) in order to form a simultaneous equation in order to solve for V2 but that ended up failing as I got a negative value. Any tips?

The number in blue below the question is the answer btw
(edited 2 years ago)
You've got Bernoulli-

p+12ρv2+Φ=constp + \frac{1}{2}\rho{v^2} + \Phi = const

for some constant. Using that, you can get the equation

v22v12=somethingv_2^2 - v_1^2 = something

Now you have to consider the mass flow rate: mass flow in the first section equals the second. That gives you v2(v1)v_2(v_1). That should lead you to a solution.

The more formal equation to use I would think is mass continuity

tρ+ρv=0\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot{\rho\vec{v}} = 0

but that's just the same as eyeballing the mass flow rate, anyhow. (you'd take it into the integral form for that.)
(edited 2 years ago)
Original post by Callicious
You've got Bernoulli-

p+12ρv2+Φ=constp + \frac{1}{2}\rho{v^2} + \Phi = const

for some constant. Using that, you can get the equation

v22v12=somethingv_2^2 - v_1^2 = something

Now you have to consider the mass flow rate: mass flow in the first section equals the second. That gives you v2(v1)v_2(v_1). That should lead you to a solution.

The more formal equation to use I would think is mass continuity

tρ+ρv=0\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot{\rho\vec{v}} = 0

but that's just the same as eyeballing the mass flow rate, anyhow. (you'd take it into the integral form for that.)

Are you suggesting that I rearrange the mass flow rate equation to make V2 the subject and then sub that back into V2^2-V1^2?
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
Are you suggesting that I rearrange the mass flow rate equation to make V2 the subject and then sub that back into V2^2-V1^2?

I'm likely wrong mind you- I've never had to actually deal with this kind of stuff. Try giving it a go though? (I've tried but haven't gotten the right answer, so yeah. Will try again and feed back)
Original post by Callicious
I'm likely wrong mind you- I've never had to actually deal with this kind of stuff. Try giving it a go though? (I've tried but haven't gotten the right answer, so yeah. Will try again and feed back)

Ah ok. Btw I forgot to mention that the value of G in this sheet is 9.807
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
Ah ok. Btw I forgot to mention that the value of G in this sheet is 9.807

Okay well.. the only experience I have with this is a one-shot back in 1st year. Anyhow... I really do think that this should give the right answer (though I can't manage it for some reason-) The reason I got it wrong was I used a circular pipe- I always forget that Bernoulli eqs like scaling things purely along one axis :lol:

Unparseable latex formula:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_2^2} + p_1 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2} + p _2 \\[br]p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho\left(v_2^2 - v_1^2\right) \\ [br]\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot\rho\vec{v} = 0 \\ [br]0 + \oint \rho\vec{v}\cdot{d\vec{s}} = 0 \\ [br]\rho{v_1}{A_1} = \rho{v_2}{A_2} \\ [br]v_1\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 = v_2 \\ [br]\therefore p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^4 - 1\right)[br]



That's for a circular pipe. I'm an idiot! :lol:
If instead of using an area proportional to the diameter squared, and instead use it just proportional to diameter,

p1p2=12ρv12((d1d2)21)p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 - 1\right)

I do get the right answer.

You don't need g at all for this: this is a horizontal pipe. For more info, see https://www.researchgate.net/publication/280717530_First_Theoretical_Constructions_to_the_Fluid_Mechanics_Problem_of_the_Discharge.
(edited 2 years ago)
Original post by Callicious
Okay well.. the only experience I have with this is a one-shot back in 1st year. Anyhow... I really do think that this should give the right answer (though I can't manage it for some reason-) The reason I got it wrong was I used a circular pipe- I always forget that Bernoulli eqs like scaling things purely along one axis :lol:

Unparseable latex formula:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_2^2} + p_1 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2} + p _2 \\[br]p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho\left(v_2^2 - v_1^2\right) \\ [br]\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot\rho\vec{v} = 0 \\ [br]0 + \oint \rho\vec{v}\cdot{d\vec{s}} = 0 \\ [br]\rho{v_1}{A_1} = \rho{v_2}{A_2} \\ [br]v_1\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 = v_2 \\ [br]\therefore p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^4 - 1\right)[br]



That's for a circular pipe. I'm an idiot! :lol:
If instead of using an area proportional to the diameter squared, and instead use it just proportional to diameter,

p1p2=12ρv12((d1d2)21)p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 - 1\right)

I do get the right answer.

You don't need g at all for this: this is a horizontal pipe. For more info, see https://www.researchgate.net/publication/280717530_First_Theoretical_Constructions_to_the_Fluid_Mechanics_Problem_of_the_Discharge.

Ah I see thanks, Idk why my professor included stuff in a worksheet that's intended to only cover the stuff he's been through with us lmao
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
Ah I see thanks, Idk why my professor included stuff in a worksheet that's intended to only cover the stuff he's been through with us lmao

What's he covered? If you're dealing with Bernoulli then you will definitely have covered continuity...
Original post by Callicious
What's he covered? If you're dealing with Bernoulli then you will definitely have covered continuity...

I don't recall us ever going over the horizontal pipe vs circular pipe stuff lol, I'll re-check some of the lectures to see if I missed out anything in my notes
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
I don't recall us ever going over the horizontal pipe vs circular pipe stuff lol, I'll re-check some of the lectures to see if I missed out anything in my notes

The circular pipe thing was all me-

Now that I recall, we never covered circular pipes- we only scaled them in one axis (i.e. the diameter doubled or halved with the same height of the pipe, etc.) I just didn't remember and assumed a circular pipe for my solution, which wasn't what the question wanted (they assumed the normal single-axis scaling.)
Original post by Callicious
Okay well.. the only experience I have with this is a one-shot back in 1st year. Anyhow... I really do think that this should give the right answer (though I can't manage it for some reason-) The reason I got it wrong was I used a circular pipe- I always forget that Bernoulli eqs like scaling things purely along one axis :lol:

Unparseable latex formula:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_2^2} + p_1 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2} + p _2 \\[br]p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho\left(v_2^2 - v_1^2\right) \\ [br]\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot\rho\vec{v} = 0 \\ [br]0 + \oint \rho\vec{v}\cdot{d\vec{s}} = 0 \\ [br]\rho{v_1}{A_1} = \rho{v_2}{A_2} \\ [br]v_1\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 = v_2 \\ [br]\therefore p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^4 - 1\right)[br]



That's for a circular pipe. I'm an idiot! :lol:
If instead of using an area proportional to the diameter squared, and instead use it just proportional to diameter,

p1p2=12ρv12((d1d2)21)p_1 - p_2 = \frac{1}{2}\rho{v_1^2}\left(\left(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\right)^2 - 1\right)

I do get the right answer.

You don't need g at all for this: this is a horizontal pipe. For more info, see https://www.researchgate.net/publication/280717530_First_Theoretical_Constructions_to_the_Fluid_Mechanics_Problem_of_the_Discharge.

I was just looking back at this thread and wanted to know why the pgz(1) and pgz(2) were omitted from the bernoulli's equation you set up in step 1 of your calc?
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
I was just looking back at this thread and wanted to know why the pgz(1) and pgz(2) were omitted from the bernoulli's equation you set up in step 1 of your calc?

Because gravitational potential energy matters not with this problem. Bernoulli is energy conservation- if we don't use gravity, it needn't be kept in the equation since it all cancels out.
Original post by Callicious
Because gravitational potential energy matters not with this problem. Bernoulli is energy conservation- if we don't use gravity, it needn't be kept in the equation since it all cancels out.

Ah ok thanks for the clarification, I'm assuming this would be the opposite when it comes to inclined pipes? Also when it comes to area/diameter stuff for inclined pipes, should you treat it as being the same as circular or horizontal pipes?
Original post by Soul Wavel3ngth
Ah ok thanks for the clarification, I'm assuming this would be the opposite when it comes to inclined pipes? Also when it comes to area/diameter stuff for inclined pipes, should you treat it as being the same as circular or horizontal pipes?

Don't just try to memorize all the unique configurations and use the equations as they've been given- understand them.

p+12ρv2+Φ=constp + \frac{1}{2}\rho{v^2} + \Phi = \textrm{const}

First term- pressure. The energy density attributed to a volume of fluid at rest, i.e. you could call this the internal energy of sorts for constant-entropy cases.
Second term- half-rho-vsquared. The bulk kinetic energy density attributed to the bulk motion of this volume of fluid.
Third term- phi. Potential energies and other terms that may come into play.

Insert a volume ΔV\Delta{V}

pΔV+12ρv2ΔV+ΦΔV=constp\Delta{V} + \frac{1}{2}\rho{v^2}\Delta{V} + \Phi\Delta{V} = \textrm{const}

This shows you the energy of the parcel ΔV\Delta{V} as it moves through the pipe that you're applying this equation to. This is an equation of energy conservation- the energy of the parcel, total, must be constant: we never accounted for energy leaving our parcel of volume ΔV\Delta{V} as far as I am aware- thus it must be conserved.

All we stipulated in our case was that

Unparseable latex formula:

\left(p_1-p_2) + \frac{1}{2}\left(\rho_1v_1^2 - \rho_2v_2^2\right) + \left(\Phi_1-\Phi_2\right) = 0



If your fluid weren't incompressible, this would be what you would be contending with. Using mass continuity...

tρ+(ρv)=0\partial_t\rho + \nabla\cdot\left(\rho\vec{v}\right) = 0

Evaluate the integral of this for the two ends of the tube for mass continuity-

t(VρdV)+SρvdS=0\partial_t\left(\int_V \rho dV\right) + \oint_S \rho\vec{v}\cdot{d\vec{S}} = 0

First integral is zero- steady flow and thus the amount of mass in this volume is constant. The second integral is over the entire surface- the walls have no mass flux across them- consider the cross-sections at the start and finish of our volume element. Assume that the density and velocity are the same across the entire cross-sectional element and you'll see

ρ1v1A1=ρ2v2A2\rho_1v_1A_1 = \rho_2v_2A_2

As long as we maintain what I said about cross-section density/velocity/etc being the same across the surface A1/A2A_1/A_2 this will always hold. Symmetry of the pipe cross-section also matters, mind you, if the two sections 1,2 aren't identical in shape, so let's just also say this only holds for horizontally symmetric pipe cross-sections.

Now, if the densities are equal and the fluid is incompressible, this general form will return you back to where we were with my previous answer. If the density can vary, the solving gets a bit more sticky and you'll likely need more information.
(edited 2 years ago)

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