If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why does the y component of velocity in the inertial frame NOT equal the y component velocity in the moving reference frame.
many thanks
many thanks
Please stick to the same thread for the same question. Thanks.
Original post by georgeh1ll
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why is Uy≠Uy’ ?
Original post by georgeh1ll
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why does the y component of velocity in the inertial frame NOT equal the y component velocity in the moving reference frame.
many thanks
many thanks
As velocity can be considered as the ratio of length interval to time interval, there is no length contraction is involved for transverse space intervals but time is dilated for the time interval. The “complicated” transverse velocity transformation is a direct consequence of time-dilation effect.
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