Is "accidental penetration" rape?

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    (Original post by Nirvana1989-1994)
    PROSM
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j8ZF_R_j0OY

    =))))))))))))))))OP be like
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    slipping in by accident would be something she'd have to have accepted in agreeing to the actions she did but him continuing would be rape

    however wtf - even if a woman agreed to those terms how would she not notice a dick inside her?
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    Yes.
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    Yes, it is rape.


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    (Original post by Rhaenys10)
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j8ZF_R_j0OY

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    Haha true.

    I bet the Moromons also utelise 'God's Loophole' lol .
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    (Original post by Nirvana1989-1994)
    Haha true.

    I bet the Moromons also utelise 'God's Loophole' lol .
    Purity rings, oh my... This is an American thing, right? :rofl:
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    (Original post by Nirvana1989-1994)
    Haha true.

    I bet the Moromons also utelise 'God's Loophole' lol .
    BTW, I can't help but think of Eminem's Dirty Conscience when I'm reading the phrase 'accidental penetration':
    Wait! What if there's an explanation for this ****?
    What? She tripped? Fell? Landed on his dick?!
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    nope - you need both action and intent for rape - there are law cases in UK law where there have been people raping crying women but the men were told that the women were just being dramatic and playing hard to get (from their husbands who for whatever reason were trying to get others to have sex with their wives), and it was found therefore that, due to no intent of rape, they weren't guilty of a sexual offence
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    (Original post by Rhaenys10)
    Purity rings, oh my... This is an American thing, right?
    Definitely.

    (Original post by Rhaenys10)
    BTW, I can't help but think of Eminem's Dirty Conscience when I'm reading the phrase 'accidental penetration':
    Wait! What if there's an explanation for this ****?
    What? She tripped? Fell? Landed on his dick?!
    Hahahahaha. :laugh: :laugh: :laugh:
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    (Original post by Anonymous)
    To make this short, I'll bullet point this situation..

    1. A man and woman are in bed, kissing and such.
    2. The girl made it VERY clear she did not want to have sex with the man
    3. She however, agreed to him rubbing his penis on her vagina
    4. They do that, but at some point, it slips inside and the man does not stop having sex...
    5. The woman is unaware that it slipped inside but is informed by the man, after he ejaculates, that he did penetrate her.

    IS THIS RAPE? What are your thoughts?
    The accidental point is not (because it requires intentional penetration), but it becomes so at at the point where he does not stop. Clearly rape as he knew she did not consent.

    The sleep part is just she cant give consent, although I seem to recall some case about previously giving it as party of a sex game.
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    (Original post by sleepysnooze)
    nope - you need both action and intent for rape - there are law cases in UK law where there have been people raping crying women but the men were told that the women were just being dramatic and playing hard to get (from their husbands who for whatever reason were trying to get others to have sex with their wives), and it was found therefore that, due to no intent of rape, they weren't guilty of a sexual offence
    Nice irony with the Quagmire display picture
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    (Original post by hellodave5)
    Nice irony with the Quagmire display picture
    :lol: I took it in mind before posting
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    (Original post by Anonymous)
    What are your thoughts?
    That we shouldn't do your homework for you.

    Of course it's rape. She did not consent, he knew she did not consent, and yet he continued penetration anyway. Her extremely implausible lack of awareness for happening is not relevant.
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    (Original post by doodle_333)
    slipping in by accident would be something she'd have to have accepted in agreeing to the actions she did but him continuing would be rape

    however wtf - even if a woman agreed to those terms how would she not notice a dick inside her?
    It happens
    http://www.independent.co.uk/news/uk...y-9980575.html

    http://www.bbc.co.uk/newsbeat/articl...ar-in-my-sleep

    http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-scotlan...-west-33551743
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    (Original post by Anonymous)
    To make this short, I'll bullet point this situation..

    1. A man and woman are in bed, kissing and such.
    2. The girl made it VERY clear she did not want to have sex with the man
    3. She however, agreed to him rubbing his penis on her vagina
    4. They do that, but at some point, it slips inside and the man does not stop having sex...
    5. The woman is unaware that it slipped inside but is informed by the man, after he ejaculates, that he did penetrate her.

    IS THIS RAPE? What are your thoughts?
    Why are you anonymous for this?
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    (Original post by sleepysnooze)
    nope - you need both action and intent for rape - there are law cases in UK law where there have been people raping crying women but the men were told that the women were just being dramatic and playing hard to get (from their husbands who for whatever reason were trying to get others to have sex with their wives), and it was found therefore that, due to no intent of rape, they weren't guilty of a sexual offence
    He knew she did not consent, therefore it was non consensual sexual intercourse i.e rape.
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    He knew she did not consent, therefore it was non consensual sexual intercourse i.e rape.
    no, I'm talking about the case where they *didn't* so it wasn't. I'm trying to find the case name now.
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    (Original post by sleepysnooze)
    no, I'm talking about the case where they *didn't* so it wasn't. I'm trying to find the case name now.
    Unintelligible.
    Find the case then. the OP's scenario is rape.
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    Unintelligible.
    Find the case then. the OP's scenario is rape.
    I can't find it because it's been years since I've seen the name of the case - but I was talking about this same case with my housemate (who is a third year lawyer who had said the name but now I don't remember it, as I've said) and we were reaching the exact same conclusion - if the mistake of consent was reasonable then it isn't rape - why would I make this up? but I'm not only appealing to the law - if you have sex with somebody and you sincerely believe that they are consenting, how is that rape? I swear the legal (UK) definition of rape too accounts for this?
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    Yes because she said to stop and he did not
 
 
 
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