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Non 1-1 transformation of continuous random variable

X is exponentially distributed with mean s.
Find P(Sin(X)> 1/2)

So,

fX(x) = se-sx, x \geq0
0, otherwise

FX(x) = 1 - e-sx, x\geq 0
0 otherwise

Let Y = sin X

FY (y) = P(Y \leqy)
= P(sinX \leq Y)
= P(X \leq arcsin(y), X \geq π\pi- arcsin(y)) {This is where I become slightly unsure}
=FX(arcsin(y)) - FX(Pi - arcsin(y))
=1-e-s(arcsin(y)) - (1-e-s( - arcsin(y)))

From here I can differentiate to find the pdf and then use that to find sinX < 1/2. But I don't think this is right so far?
Will.Honeyman
...


So, you're going to need to work out for what values of X, Sin(X) is > 1/2.

In the interval 0 to 2pi, it's ....

So integrate your pdf between those limits.

NOW, what about the interval 2pi to 4pi, etc.

Then sum to infinity.
Reply 2
ghostwalker
So, you're going to need to work out for what values of X, Sin(X) is > 1/2.

In the interval 0 to 2pi, it's ....

So integrate your pdf between those limits.

NOW, what about the interval 2pi to 4pi, etc.

Then sum to infinity.


Thanks.

When I integrate between π\pi/6 and 5π\pi/6 I get e-sπ\pi/6 - e-s5π\pi/6

Similarly between 2π\pi and 4π\pi I get e-s13π\pi/6 - e-s17π\pi/6

So summing to infinity, I get e-sπ\pi/6 - e-s5π\pi/6 + e-s13π\pi/6 - e-s17π\pi/6 + e-s25π\pi/6 - e-s29π\pi/6

So, it is \sum e-sπ\pi(1+12n)/6 - \sum e-sπ\pi(5+12n)/6, both from n=0 to infinity.

Calculating this on Maple I get 1/(esπ\pi/6(1-(1/e2sπ\pi))) - 1/(e5sπ\pi/6(1-(1/e2sπ\pi)))
Reply 3
I'm also working on a similar problem:

There is a pin of length 4 which appear on a photograph, and the length of the image observed is y, an observation on the random variable Y. The pin is at an angle x, 0\leqx\leqπ\pi/2, to the normal to the film, this is an observation on the r.v. X.

1. If all angles X are equally likely then derive the distribution of Y.

2. What is E(Y)?

X is uniform so fX(x) = 2/π\pi , 0\leqx\leqπ\pi/2 and fX (x) = 0 otherwise.

So FX (x) = 0, x<0
= 2x/π\pi, 0\leqx\leqπ\pi/2
=1, x>π\pi/2

Y=4SinX

FY(y)= P(Y\leqy)
=P(4sinX \leqy)
=P(π\pi - arcsin(y/4) \leq X \leq 2π\pi - arcsin(y/4)) (*)
= FX (2π\pi - arcsin(y/4)) - FX (π\pi - arcsin(y/4)
= 2 + (2/π\pi)arcsin(y/4)

So fY(y) = (2/π\pi)(1/4)(1/1(y2)/4\sqrt{1-(y^2)/4}) for 0\leqy\leq4 and 0 otherwise.

Is this ok so far? I'm very unsure of the stage marked by (*).
Will.Honeyman

=P(π\pi - arcsin(y/4) \leq X \leq 2π\pi - arcsin(y/4)) (*)
= FX (2π\pi - arcsin(y/4)) - FX (π\pi - arcsin(y/4)
= 2 + (2/π\pi)arcsin(y/4)

So fY(y) = (2/π\pi)(1/4)(1/1y[sup]2[/sup]/4\sqrt{1-y[sup]2[/sup]/4}) for 0\leqy\leq4 and 0 otherwise.

Is this ok so far? I'm very unsure of the stage marked by (*).


I don't claim any great expertise on this, so bear that in mind.

My thinking would be for (*)

=P( 0 < X < arcsin(y/4))

bearing in mind the restrictions on X.
Reply 5
That makes a lot of sense, thanks. Carrying on I get E(Y) = 8/Pi which seems reasonable.
Will.Honeyman
That makes a lot of sense, thanks. Carrying on I get E(Y) = 8/Pi which seems reasonable.


For what it's worth, I agree with that.

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