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    Why does a spherical mass have GPE distribution W say that is the following?

    \displaystyle W=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\infty} \phi(r)~\rho(r)~4\pi r^2~dr
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    Because mathematically half of the integr in respect to dr is W
 
 
 
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Updated: December 28, 2014
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