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Differentiation !

Does limit as x tends to 1 of( √(1-x) ) exist

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Reply 1
Original post by katherinaa
Does limit as x tends to 1 of( √(1-x) ) exist

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it tends to being 0.
Reply 2
Original post by Goods
it tends to being 0.


lim as x tends to 1 right (1+)doesnt exist ..so how does limit as x tends to 1 exist !

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Reply 3
Original post by katherinaa
lim as x tends to 1 right (1+)doesnt exist ..so how does limit as x tends to 1 exist !

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1). English.
...
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 4
I cant understand what are you saying ..
What do you mean by english (Obviously I am writing in english :biggrin: )
So you agree that lim when x tends to 1 doesnt exist ? ..

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Reply 5
Original post by katherinaa
I cant understand what are you saying ..
What do you mean by english (Obviously I am writing in english :biggrin: )
So you agree that lim when x tends to 1 doesnt exist ? ..

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I can't understand what you are saying, hence why I said English. .....
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 6
Original post by Phichi
I can't understand what you are saying, hence why I said English. The limit when x tends to 1, of your original expression is 0. That is it. It does exist, and the answer is

In order that we could say the limit exist when x tends to any number , the left limit and the right limit have to be equal , Right?!!
In this proplem .. the right limit doesn't exist ...So how could we say that the limit when x tends to 1 exist ?


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Reply 7
[QUOTE="katherinaa;45416664"]
Original post by Phichi
I can't understand what you are saying, hence why I said English. The limit when x tends to 1, of your original expression is 0. That is it. It does exist, and the answer is

In order that we could say the limit exist when x tends to any number , the left limit and the right limit have to be equal , Right?!!
In this proplem .. the right limit doesn't exist ...So how could we say that the limit when x tends to 1 exist ?


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If you are considering this as a function from real numbers to real numbers then your function is only defined for x<1, so only the left-hand limit exists.
Reply 8
[QUOTE="davros;45418932"]
Original post by katherinaa


If you are considering this as a function from real numbers to real numbers then your function is only defined for x<1, so only the left-hand limit exists.


Thaanks :smile:

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