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Inverse function derivative

So ddxf1(x)=1f(f1(x)) \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}

I understand this can be shown from the identity map ff1(x)=x\displaystyle f \circ f^{-1}(x) = x and just differentiating and making ddxf1(x) \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) the subject.

But this looked familiar when my lecture notes said it's the same as dydx=1dxdy \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\frac{dx}{dy}} if you let y=f1(x) \displaystyle y = f^{-1}(x)

Now I'm probably being stupid but, wouldn't that make the above dydx=1ddxy=1dydx[br][br] \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\frac{d}{dx}y}= \frac{1}{\frac{dy}{dx}}[br] [br] ?
Reply 1
Can you explain further as I see it, if:

y=f1(x)f(y)=x. \displaystyle y = f^{-1}(x) \Leftrightarrow f(y) = x.

Differentiate with respect to y:

dxdy=f(y)=f(f1(x)). \displaystyle \frac{dx}{dy} = f^{'} (y) = f^{'} \Big( f^{-1} (x) \Big).

Therefore:

dydx=1f(f1(x)),(=d[f1(x)]dx). \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{f^{'} \Big( f^{-1} (x) \Big)}, \, \Bigg( = \frac{ d[f^{-1} (x)] }{dx} \Bigg).

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Off topic: Is this to do with the "Inverse Function Theorem"?
(edited 6 years ago)
Original post by simon0
Can you explain further as I see it, if:

y=f1(x)f(y)=x. \displaystyle y = f^{-1}(x) \Leftrightarrow f(y) = x.

Differentiate with respect to y:

dxdy=f(y)=f(f1(x)). \displaystyle \frac{dx}{dy} = f^{'} (y) = f^{'} \Big( f^{-1} (x) \Big).

Therefore:

dydx=d[f1(x)]dx=1f(f1(x)). \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{ d[f^{-1} (x)] }{dx} = \frac{1}{f^{'} \Big( f^{-1} (x) \Big)}.

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Off topic: Is this to do with the "Inverse Function Theorem"?


How did you get the last line From what's above?

It might be, but I'm just reading the rules for differentiation.
Reply 3
I believe you are missing the last part of the equation, the F and exponent can't just disappear and should be included, so you have 2/3's of the equation. Apologies if I am incorrect and on the wrong track, its been a while since I had quadratic equations, Calc 1 & 2, etc. :smile:

Original post by NotNotBatman
So ddxf1(x)=1f(f1(x)) \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}

I understand this can be shown from the identity map ff1(x)=x\displaystyle f \circ f^{-1}(x) = x and just differentiating and making ddxf1(x) \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) the subject.

But this looked familiar when my lecture notes said it's the same as dydx=1dxdy \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\frac{dx}{dy}} if you let y=f1(x) \displaystyle y = f^{-1}(x)

Now I'm probably being stupid but, wouldn't that make the above dydx=1ddxy=1dydx[br][br] \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\frac{d}{dx}y}= \frac{1}{\frac{dy}{dx}}[br] [br] ?
Reply 4
Original post by NotNotBatman
How did you get the last line From what's above?

It might be, but I'm just reading the rules for differentiation.


I applied the reciprocal of dx/dy (so I did 1/(dx/dy) ). :-)
Original post by luq_ali
I believe you are missing the last part of the equation, the F and exponent can't just disappear and should be included, so you have 2/3's of the equation. Apologies if I am incorrect and on the wrong track, its been a while since I had quadratic equations, Calc 1 & 2, etc. :smile:


The equation is written properly. I'm not sure what you mean... the f^-1 is there.
Original post by simon0
I applied the reciprocal of dx/dy (so I did 1/(dx/dy) ). :-)


But that's what need to be proven.
Reply 7
Yes, it is correct in the last one you had there, but I was referring to the last line of your original...I was writing my response and by the time I had completed, you had made a correction to your initial post-which is the one (the first one) I was responding too. So now it is indeed correct.

Original post by NotNotBatman
The equation is written properly. I'm not sure what you mean... the f^-1 is there.
Original post by luq_ali
Yes, it is correct in the last one you had there, but I was referring to the last line of your original...I was writing my response and by the time I had completed, you had made a correction to your initial post-which is the one (the first one) I was responding too. So now it is indeed correct.


I haven't edited my post, maybe it took while to load or something I don't know.

But I still don't understand how my working is wrong :/

it isn't correct as it would mean that dy/dx at some point is always equal to it's reciprocal.
Reply 9
The equation as stated by Simon is correct, and that is what I was noting-you quoted it in responding to him and asking about it-what he gave was the correct one as far as I can tell.

Original post by NotNotBatman
I haven't edited my post, maybe it took while to load or something I don't know.

But I still don't understand how my working is wrong :/

it isn't correct as it would mean that dy/dx at some point is always equal to it's reciprocal.
Original post by luq_ali
The equation as stated by Simon is correct, and that is what I was noting-you quoted it in responding to him and asking about it-what he gave was the correct one as far as I can tell.


Oh ok, but what I want to know is how what I've written is incorrect (concerning the relationship between notation), because it seems like the answer was used to prove the original question.
(edited 6 years ago)
Reply 11
One short way to show that dy/dx = 1/(dy/dx) is using the chain rule where:

y = f(x).

Differentiate with respect to y using the chain rule:

1 = d[f(x)] / dy = ( d[f(x)]/dx ) ( dx/dy) = (dy/dx)(dx/dy), as we defined y = f(x).

Therefore:

dy/dx = 1/( dx/dy ).

This is assuming dx/dy is not 0.

A more formal proof is using the inverse function theorem.
(edited 6 years ago)
Your final equation in your last line-compare it what Simon has as his final line-and try to work back from there.





Original post by NotNotBatman
Oh ok, but what I want to know is how what I've written is incorrect (concerning the relationship between notation), because it seems like the answer was used to prove the original question.

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