The Student Room Group

Scroll to see replies

Original post by MathsNerd1
Well the thing I tend to struggle with is the Work-energy principle as I'd rather just use M1 techniques as I can't get the concept straight in my head yet, everything else tends to be alright :smile:


Ah yes the work-energy principle, I can't say I remember how to do it but I remember that I didn't know how to do it properly when we covered it in class, and then I went over it at home during revision and it made sense, what about it do you not understand?
Original post by Anythingoo1
Ah yes the work-energy principle, I can't say I remember how to do it but I remember that I didn't know how to do it properly when we covered it in class, and then I went over it at home during revision and it made sense, what about it do you not understand?


Yeah its quite annoying for me really and I understand the equations for the 2 different parts of Gain/Loss in PE = mgh where h is the vertical height and where the Gain/Loss in KE = 1/2mu^2, the main problem I find I have is working out when Work is done by friction on which side it goes on, after I've got that sorted then I'll have that entire part down and they shouldn't really throw me off if one came up in June.
Original post by MathsNerd1
Yeah its quite annoying for me really and I understand the equations for the 2 different parts of Gain/Loss in PE = mgh where h is the vertical height and where the Gain/Loss in KE = 1/2mu^2, the main problem I find I have is working out when Work is done by friction on which side it goes on, after I've got that sorted then I'll have that entire part down and they shouldn't really throw me off if one came up in June.


Oh yeah ok I remember, just remember if it's an inclined plane, then in the ball is going up the slope, friction is acting down the slope, if the ball is falling down the slope, friction is acting up the slope
Original post by Anythingoo1
Oh yeah ok I remember, just remember if it's an inclined plane, then in the ball is going up the slope, friction is acting down the slope, if the ball is falling down the slope, friction is acting up the slope


Oh okay, so is the work done by friction just in the direction that friction acts upon?

So for an example if you're going up the plane the equation would be
Loss in KE = Gain in PE + WD by friction? Or would the work done be on the other side of the equation?
Original post by MathsNerd1
Oh okay, so is the work done by friction just in the direction that friction acts upon?

So for an example if you're going up the plane the equation would be
Loss in KE = Gain in PE + WD by friction? Or would the work done be on the other side of the equation?


Hey it can never be in the other side of the equation (and still be positive). The LHS is the energy that will be transferred and the RHS is the energy that it has been transferred to. And energy is not a vector quantity so you can neglect any direction.

Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by Anythingoo1
85 is pretty good! Erm the moments definitely get more complicated, but there is a pattern to the questions which makes it easier


Thanks, yeah... I have a loooooooong time anyway to perfect it!
Guys I have a question about histograms.... I know the data has to be continuous so there can be no gaps between the class boundaries. Therefore if it's to the nearest pound (for example), then we use the boundary £1.50-£2-50. However, what happens when the data starts at 0? Do we use 0.50-1.50 or just 0-£1.50?Thanks!
Original post by StUdEnTIGCSE
Hey it can never be in the other side of the equation (and still be positive). The LHS is the energy that will be transferred and the RHS is the energy that it has been transferred to. And energy is not a vector quantity so you can neglect any direction.

Posted from TSR Mobile


I think I understand it now, thanks for the help as well as anythingoo1 :smile:


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by GCSE-help
Guys I have a question about histograms.... I know the data has to be continuous so there can be no gaps between the class boundaries. Therefore if it's to the nearest pound (for example), then we use the boundary £1.50-£2-50. However, what happens when the data starts at 0? Do we use 0.50-1.50 or just 0-£1.50?Thanks!


Interesting question
Have you come across a problem regarding it? If so post the question also. Most times the question will guide you, I guess

Posted from TSR Mobile
Anyone help me on how to finish this q - ImageUploadedByStudent Room1368605918.858720.jpgImageUploadedByStudent Room1368605938.678819.jpg

It's q6 and there's one final bit to simplify it but I don't understand how it's arrived at it - the answer is y =100x^3


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by krishkmistry
Anyone help me on how to finish this q - ImageUploadedByStudent Room1368605918.858720.jpgImageUploadedByStudent Room1368605938.678819.jpg

It's q6 and there's one final bit to simplify it but I don't understand how it's arrived at it - the answer is y =100x^3


Posted from TSR Mobile


2 ways about it

Posted from TSR Mobile
Reply 711
Can someone help me with S1 .

Watch this exam solution video/ question c

http://http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A_MDxLz51qM

I don't understand part C. Here's the Question Paper, its Q3 part C

http://http://www.tomred.org/uploads/7/7/8/3/778329/s1_ms_jan_2011.pdf
Original post by Xx4L3x
Can someone help me with S1 .

Watch this exam solution video/ question c

http://http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A_MDxLz51qM

I don't understand part C. Here's the Question Paper, its Q3 part C

http://http://www.tomred.org/uploads/7/7/8/3/778329/s1_ms_jan_2011.pdf


The sales for the top 75% of months would be the lower quartile and above.

The lower quartile is £7000. This means that the top 75% of months had an amount received of greater than £7000 rather than £10000, so there is no basis for the company's claim.
Reply 713
Original post by justinawe
The sales for the top 75% of months would be the lower quartile and above.

The lower quartile is £7000. This means that the top 75% of months had an amount received of greater than £7000 rather than £10000, so there is no basis for the company's claim.


75% = UQ though ~?????
Original post by Xx4L3x
75% = UQ though ~?????


That's the 75th percentile, or the top 25%.

You want the TOP 75%, so that's 25th percentile (lower quartile) and up.
Is there something as error carried forward? And what do they do?
Been panicking about this but in core 2 exams - if you leave your answer with an ellipsis at the end indicating an accurate figure - would you get full marks - that's if they don't ask how accurate you need to be.


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by MAyman12
Is there something as error carried forward? And what do they do?


It means that if you make a mistake at the beginning of a question, or say in part a), and then you use that answer later on to do something else in theory you shouldonly be penalised once if the rest of your method is correct. In general, certainly for AQA they tend to use 'show that' questions if they think you will need the answer later on, don't know what the other exam boards do though.


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by furryface12
It means that if you make a mistake at the beginning of a question, or say in part a), and then you use that answer later on to do something else in theory you shouldonly be penalised once if the rest of your method is correct. In general, certainly for AQA they tend to use 'show that' questions if they think you will need the answer later on, don't know what the other exam boards do though.


Posted from TSR Mobile


That's a bummer I'm on edexcel though.
Hai, I'm doing S1 on Friday and need some last minute help!

It's edexcel June 2010 and I'm stuck on 3e, 4e and 6f.
Any help greatly appreciated :smile:

Latest

Trending

Trending