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Prove sin(x) + cos(x) /=/ 1

I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect

EDIT - I made a mess of this question. What I meant to say is that:

sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1 for all values of x

However

sin(x) + cos(x) /=/ 1 for all values of x.

Prove why this is not the case.
(edited 8 years ago)

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Reply 1
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect


you are not making sense...
Reply 2
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect


Whats that about 3+4=5??
Reply 3
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect


Is your question: prove that sinx+cosx1\sin x + \cos x \neq 1?

If so, x=2πnx = 2 \pi n or x=2πn+π2\displaystyle x = 2\pi n + \frac{\pi}{2} for any nZn \in \mathbb{Z} is an easy counterexample.
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by TeeEm
you are not making sense...


Original post by raman_17
Whats that about 3+4=5??


well for 3^2 + 4^2 = 5^2 square root everything.

Original post by Zacken
Is your question: prove that sinx+cosx1sin x + cos x \neq 1?

If so, x=2πnx = 2 \pi n or x=2πn+π2\displaystyle x = 2\pi n + \frac{\pi}{2} for any nZn \in \mathbb{Z} is an easy counterexample.


I see.

So just by contradiction then?

Nothing we can do by induction or anytihng else.
Just sub in a random value for x which doesn't make either one 0 or 1.
Original post by raman_17
Whats that about 3+4=5??


32+42=523+4=53^2+4^2=5^2 \nRightarrow 3+4=5
Reply 7
just substitute a random number in and prove by counter example.
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect


Remember sin(X) = opposite/hypotenuse and cos(X) = adjacent/hypotenuse

So you can see why the sum of squares is 1 by Pythagoras' theorem, but for the sum itself it can never be 1 (unless X=0).

Sin(X) + cos(X) = (O + A)/H.

If you think of the hypotenuse as the shortest distance between two points, A+O must be more than H.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 9
Original post by Vikingninja
Just sub in a random value for x which doesn't make either one 0 or 1.


Original post by Mihael_Keehl
well for 3^2 + 4^2 = 5^2 square root everything.



Neither of you make any sense.

1. sin x + cos x DOES EQUAL 1. You can't prove it doesn't because it does.
Reply 10
I am still lost ...

Z5.jpg


I am sure @Zacken will help here
Reply 11
Original post by cubic^3
just substitute a random number in and prove by counter example.


Original post by Asklepios
Remember sin(X) = opposite/hypotenuse and cos(X) = adjacent/hypotenuse

So you can see why the sum of squares is 1 by Pythagoras' theorem, but for the sum itself it can never be 1.


x=2πx = 2\pi...
Reply 12
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
I get the whole 3+4 /=/ 5 argument

but from sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

how do we establish a proof to show that it is incorrcect


Add 2sinxcosx to both sides, you get sin^2(x) + 2sinxcosx + cos^2(x) = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This can be rewritten as (sinx + cosx)^2 = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This implies that sinx + cosx = ±sqrt(1 + sin2x), a solution does not exist for any value of x. Maybe you could even graph the function.

Edit: nah, I was wrong. :tongue:
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 13
Original post by aymanzayedmannan
Add 2sinxcosx to both sides, you get sin^2(x) + 2sinxcosx + cos^2(x) = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This can be rewritten as (sinx + cosx)^2 = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This implies that sinx + cosx = ±sqrt(1 + sin2x), a solution does not exist for any value of x. Maybe you could even graph the function.


x=2πx = 2\pi.
Reply 14
Original post by TeeEm
I am still lost ...

Z5.jpg


I am sure @Zacken will help here


I've got no clue what's going on here either. :s-smilie:
Original post by Asklepios
Remember sin(X) = opposite/hypotenuse and cos(X) = adjacent/hypotenuse

So you can see why the sum of squares is 1 by Pythagoras' theorem, but for the sum itself it can never be 1.

Sin(X) + cos(X) = (O + A)/H.

If you think of the hypotenuse as the shortest distance between to points, A+O must be more than H.


Perfect. Thank you.

Original post by Zacken
Neither of you make any sense.

1. sin x + cos x DOES EQUAL 1. You can't prove it doesn't because it does.


lol?

if x=30 then that yields 0.5(1 + sqrt3)

Did you mean sin^2x + cos^2 x
Reply 16
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
Perfect. Thank you.



lol?

if x=30 then that yields 0.5(1 + sqrt3)

Did you mean sin^2x + cos^2 x


No, your question makes 0 sense.
Original post by aymanzayedmannan
Add 2sinxcosx to both sides, you get sin^2(x) + 2sinxcosx + cos^2(x) = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This can be rewritten as (sinx + cosx)^2 = 1 + 2sinxcosx

This implies that sinx + cosx = ±sqrt(1 + sin2x), a solution does not exist for any value of x. Maybe you could even graph the function.


Another good way, thank you - I hadn't thought of doing this.

Any reason why you chose 2sinxcosx?

Any other value could be added right?
Original post by Zacken
x=2πx = 2\pi.


True but that's not really a triangle is it. But I agree stupid question unless you exclude 0 and 2pi from the domain.
Original post by Mihael_Keehl
Another good way, thank you - I hadn't thought of doing this.

Any reason why you chose 2sinxcosx?

Any other value could be added right?

No it's the non squared part of (sinx+cosx)^2

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