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C4 differentiation

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Why is the equation of the x=1
Why can't you do y-y1=m(x-x1)>>y-2=0(x-1), therefore the equation is y=2?
think about this a little more, the gradient when t=0 is 0.

so the gradient of the normal is -(1/0), which is infinity.

So when you think about it, when t=0 the tangent to the curve is a horizontal line, so the normal must be a vertical line.

(You can't use the equation you stated as that uses the gradient of the normal which is undefined (assumed infinity))

(You got y=2 because you used the gradient of the tangent :wink: )
Oh i get it but i still don't understand why they said it's x=1, i get that we know the normal is vertical but why do we assume its x=1

Original post by ImprobableCacti
think about this a little more, the gradient when t=0 is 0.

so the gradient of the normal is -(1/0), which is infinity.

So when you think about it, when t=0 the tangent to the curve is a horizontal line, so the normal must be a vertical line.

(You can't use the equation you stated as that uses the gradient of the normal which is undefined (assumed infinity))

(You got y=2 because you used the gradient of the tangent :wink: )
Original post by 12345username
Oh i get it but i still don't understand why they said it's x=1, i get that we know the normal is vertical but why do we assume its x=1


because when t=0, x = e^0, which is 1

the normal still has to pass through the same point remember :wink:
Original post by ImprobableCacti
because when t=0, x = e^0, which is 1

the normal still has to pass through the same point remember :wink:


OH yeah! Thanks
Original post by 12345username
OH yeah! Thanks


No problem :smile:

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