A question about forced vibrations
I'm going through forced vibrations and I'm currently at a point which claims that 'at low driving frequencies, the driver and the oscillations are in phase. For higher driving frequencies, the phase difference between the oscillations and the driver rises to pi radians.'
Why is this the case? What determines why exactly the phase difference between the two shifts from 0 to pi? This isn't elaborated on and is too vague for me to be satisfied with. Thanks for any insight anyone can provide.
Why is this the case? What determines why exactly the phase difference between the two shifts from 0 to pi? This isn't elaborated on and is too vague for me to be satisfied with. Thanks for any insight anyone can provide.
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