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Integration maths help pleasee

Hi guys, so I don't get part iv) only. Can someone please help me here? Is there are formula that I need to know for this?
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Original post by sienna2266
Hi guys, so I don't get part iv) only. Can someone please help me here? Is there are formula that I need to know for this?



The 'inverse' of ff is just a reflection of ff in the line y=x. To find this, you swap x and y in its equation. Now the same thing happens to the gradient. You get dydx\dfrac{dy}{dx} turns into dxdy\dfrac{dx}{dy} and this is the gradient function of f1(x)f^{-1}(x)

So really, ddxf1(x)=dxdy=1dydx\dfrac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) = \dfrac{dx}{dy} = \dfrac{1}{ \frac{dy}{dx}} where y=f(x)y=f(x)
Reply 2
Original post by RDKGames
The 'inverse' of ff is just a reflection of ff in the line y=x. To find this, you swap x and y in its equation. Now the same thing happens to the gradient. You get dydx\dfrac{dy}{dx} turns into dxdy\dfrac{dx}{dy} and this is the gradient function of f1(x)f^{-1}(x)

So really, ddxf1(x)=dxdy=1dydx\dfrac{d}{dx} f^{-1}(x) = \dfrac{dx}{dy} = \dfrac{1}{ \frac{dy}{dx}} where y=f(x)y=f(x)


Thanks so much! :smile:
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Is my working out correct here?
So here, at point (1,4) of y=f(x), the gradient is 60 and at point (4,1) of y=f^-1(x), the gradient is 1/60 ?
Also, is there a quicker/alternative way to do this assuming that I've got the correct working out here?
(edited 6 years ago)

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