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Quick Taylor expansion q

Let f(x) = log(1 - x^2). Write down the Taylor series Tf of f, about x = 0, from that of log(1- y).

I'm unsure how to start really, is the question wanting a taylor expansion of log(1-y) and then just substitute in x^2? I'm pretty sure that would be wrong but I started working out the Taylor expansion of log(1-y);

You can show that f(k)(y)=1(1y)kf^{(k)}(y)=-\frac{1}{(1-y)^k}

so ln(1y)=k=01(1y)kk!(y0)kln(1-y) =\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}-\frac{1}{(1-y)^kk!}(y-0)^k and now I don't know what to do.

Surely you can't just sub in x^2 because f(k)(x)1(1x2)kf^{(k)}(x)\not=-\frac{1}{(1-x^2)^k}
Original post by TheJ0ker
Let f(x) = log(1 - x^2). Write down the Taylor series Tf of f, about x = 0, from that of log(1- y).

I'm unsure how to start really, is the question wanting a taylor expansion of log(1-y) and then just substitute in x^2? I'm pretty sure that would be wrong but I started working out the Taylor expansion of log(1-y)


Substituting x2x^2 for yy is fine, why wouldn't it be? If you are not convinced, ln(1x2)=ln(1x)+ln(1+x)\ln (1-x^2)=\ln (1-x)+\ln (1+x)
Reply 2
Original post by Lord of the Flies
Substituting x2x^2 for yy is fine, why wouldn't it be? If you are not convinced, ln(1x2)=ln(1x)+ln(1+x)\ln (1-x^2)=\ln (1-x)+\ln (1+x)


It's just if you try and do the taylor expansion directly the higher order differentials of ln(1-x^2) it doesn't look like you can find a formula for the kth derivative. Now I think about it though I suppose the x^2 is exactly the same as y so it wouldn't matter if you put it in. Hah I think it's a bit late for maths now.
Reply 3
Original post by TheJ0ker
Let f(x) = log(1 - x^2). Write down the Taylor series Tf of f, about x = 0, from that of log(1- y).

I'm unsure how to start really, is the question wanting a taylor expansion of log(1-y) and then just substitute in x^2? I'm pretty sure that would be wrong but I started working out the Taylor expansion of log(1-y);

You can show that f(k)(y)=1(1y)kf^{(k)}(y)=-\frac{1}{(1-y)^k}

so ln(1y)=k=01(1y)kk!(y0)kln(1-y) =\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}-\frac{1}{(1-y)^kk!}(y-0)^k and now I don't know what to do.

Surely you can't just sub in x^2 because f(k)(x)1(1x2)kf^{(k)}(x)\not=-\frac{1}{(1-x^2)^k}


put x2=yx^2=y
and use differentiation and integration to get Taylopr series using the sum of infinite geometric series
(edited 10 years ago)

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